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microbiology final

all tests

QuestionAnswer
The bacterium, pond water, tht u r working w/ appears 2 use light 4 energy. Based upon this info, u inoculate the organism in2 fresh media, infused w/ lots of CO2. after incubation at the correct temperature (of pond water), the organism is not growing. there was no sulfur compound added to the medium, that could be used as an electron donor.
You are looking at an organism of some sort under the microscopic lens. It has a cell wall, no chloroplasts, and a nucleus. Your prediction would be that this organism is a/an: fungus
Chitin is a chemical component of the cell walls of fungi
All microorganisms are best defined as organisms that are too small to be seen with the unaided eye.
Which of the following is NOT a recent discovery that has had a huge impact on the understanding of microbiology? All are significant discoveries.
Bacterial cells could have any of the following appendages except cilia
The outcome of the Gram stain is based on differences in the cell's cell wall.
There are nine peripheral pairs and one central pair of _____ found inside eukaryotic flagella and cilia. microtubules
Enzymes that catalyze the removal of a functional group and its subsequent attachment to a new substrate are called: transferases.
If bacteria living in salty seawater were displaced to a freshwater environment, the cell structure that would prevent the cells from rupturing is the cell wall.
During aerobic cellular respiration, the final electron acceptor is oxygen.
Which of the following is not a function of the glycocalyx exhibited by eukaryotes? movement
The majority of reduced NAD is produced in the Krebs cycle.
_____ is a macromolecule containing alternating N-acetylglucosamine and N-acetylmuramic acid cross-linked by short peptide fragments. Peptidoglycan
Koch's postulates are criteria used to establish that a specific microbe is the cause of a specific disease.
When assigning a scientific name to an organism, both genus and species names are italicized or underlined.
The microorganisms that do not have a nucleus in their cells are called prokaryotes.
During which of the phases of cellular respiration is the majority of ATP formed? electron transport system
You have found a mutant of Streptococcus pneumoniae that has lost the ability to produce a capsule. If you inject this strain into a population of healthy mice, what prediction can you make about the consequences? The mice will remain healthy.
Reactants are converted to products by breaking and forming bonds.
In bacterial cells, the electron transport system is located in the cell membrane.
All of the following pertain to glycolysis except degrades glucose to CO2 and H2O.
Which of the following is not true of anaerobic respiration? uses the same final electron acceptors as aerobic respiration
The study of the immune response to infection caused by microorganisms is immunology.
Which of the following is found in eukaryotic cells but not in prokaryotic cells? All of the choices are correct.
Formation of peptide bonds between amino acids to build a polypeptide would be called anabolism
As the electron transport carriers shuttle electrons, they actively pump _____ into the outer membrane compartment, setting up a concentration gradient called the proton motive force. hydrogen ions
The endosymbiotic theory has been developed to explain the emergence of eukaryotes.
When glucose is broken down by glycolysis during bacterial fermentation, what is the usual net production of ATP? 2
The eukaryotic cell organelle that most resembles a bacterial cell is the mitochondrion.
Organisms called parasites are always harmful to their host.
When analyzing a specimen for identification purposes, you detect the presence of large amounts of histone protein. You predict that: the organism has a large genome.
A few antibiotics target cell membranes of cells, blocking the incorporation of chemicals into sterol molecules for the cell membrane. Which statement is true? Bacteria would be unaffected by those specific antibiotics (with very few exceptions).
In the cell, energy released by electrons is often used to phosphorylate ADP.
Which of the following is a scientific name? Streptococcus pyogenes
Helminths are parasitic worms.
Using microbes to detoxify a site contaminated with heavy metals is an example of bioremediation
Which group of microorganisms is composed only of hereditary material wrapped in a protein covering? viruses
Each NADH that enters the electron transport system gives rise to _____ ATP. 3
Which of the following is a unique characteristic of viruses that distinguishes them from the other major groups of microorganisms? lack cell structure
The formation of citric acid from oxaloacetic acid and an acetyl group begins the Krebs cycle.
Which activity is an example of biotechnology? Escherichia coli producing human insulin
Which of the following are not considered microorganisms? mosquitoes
The site/s for most ATP synthesis in prokaryotic cells is/are the cell membrane.
Upon viewing a specimen through microscopic techniques, you realize the cells all contain ribosomes. Based upon this information, you eliminate which of the following from your list of potential microorganisms: none can be eliminated based upon this structural observation alone.
Eukaryotic flagella differ from prokaryotic flagella because only eukaryotic flagella contain microtubules.
The eukaryotic cell's glycocalyx is mostly polysaccharide.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of a prokaryote? Its DNA is wrapped around histones.
Taxonomy does not involve common name.
The transfer of genes during bacterial conjugation involves rigid, tubular appendages called sex pili.
The most immediate result of destruction of a cell's ribosomes would be protein synthesis would stop.
The surgeon who advocated using disinfectants on hands and in the air prior to surgery was Joseph Lister.
How many carbon dioxide molecules are produced by the complete aerobic breakdown of one glucose molecule? 6
Which scientist showed that anthrax was caused by the bacterium, Bacillus anthracis? Robert Koch
Important components of coenzymes are vitamins.
In the experiments constructed by Pasteur to disprove spontaneous generation, swan-necked flasks were used. Why was this shape of flask used in this experiment? The glass necks needed to be open to the air, yet constructed so that bacteria would settle in the lowest part of the neck.
The Dutch merchant who made and used quality magnifying lenses to see and record microorganisms was Antonie van Leeuwenhoek.
Peptidoglycan is a unique macromolecule found in bacterial cell walls.
Most electron carriers are coenzymes.
The cell's metabolic reactions involve the participation of _____ that lower the activation energy needed for the initiation of a reaction. enzymes
In the Figure, which line best illustrates the growth of a facultative anaerobe incubated aerobically? a
The addition of which of the following to a culture medium will neutralize acids? buffers
During which growth phase will gram-positive bacteria be most susceptible to penicillin? log phase
In Figure 6.1, which line best depicts a psychrotroph incubated at 0°C? b
Which of the following is an example of a metabolic activity that could be used to measure microbial growth? glucose consumption
Most bacteria reproduce by binary fission.
If cells are grown in media containing amino acids labeled with radioactive nitrogen (15N), most of radioactivity will be found in the cells’ DNA and proteins.
A culture medium consisting of agar, peptone, and beef heart is a complex medium
Pseudomonas aeruginosa serotype 10 infected the biliary tract of 10% of 1300 patients who underwent gastrointestinal endoscopic procedures. endoscopes were washed with an automatic reprocessor tht flushed detergent and glutaraldehyde through the endoscope a biofilm in the reprocessor
In the Figure, which line best depicts an obligate anaerobe in the presence of O2? c
Patients with indwelling catheters are susceptible to infections because biofilms develop on catheters.
number of bacteria and the y-axis indicating time in culture. In the figure, which section (or sections) shows a growth phase where the number of cells dying equals the number of cells dividing? c
Which of the following pairs is mismatched? E) ultraviolet radiation — desiccation
Which of the following methods is used to preserve food by slowing the metabolic processes of foodborne microbes? freezing
An agent used to reduce the number of bacteria on a toilet would most accurately be called a(n) disinfectant
Which of the following disinfectants acts by disrupting the plasma membrane? bisphenols
Which concentration of ethanol is the most effective bactericide? 70%
Ethylene oxide is a sterilizing agent.
A disk-diffusion test using Staphylococcus gave the following results. which compound was the most effective against E. coli? The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.
A disk-diffusion test using Staphylococcus gave the following results: which compound was the most effective against Staphylococcus? C
Which of the following is the best method to sterilize heat-labile solutions? membrane filtration
Which of the following best describes the pattern of microbial death? The cells in a population die at a constant rateThe cells in a population die at a constant rate
Conjugation differs from reproduction because conjugation transfers DNA horizontally, to cells in the same generation.
An enzyme produced in response to the presence of a substrate is called a(n) inducible enzyme.
Culture 1: F+, leucine+, histidine+ Culture 2: F-, leucine-, histidine- what will be the result of conjugation between cultures 1 and 2? 1 will remain the same; 2 will become F+, leucine-, histidine-
According to the operon model, for the synthesis of an inducible enzyme to occur, the substrate must bind to the repressor
Transformation is the transfer of DNA from a donor to a recipient cell as naked DNA in solution.
The mechanism by which the presence of glucose inhibits the arabinose operon is catabolite repression.
Synthesis of a repressible enzyme is stopped by the corepressor-repressor complex binding to the operator.
Staphylococcus aureus produces the following clinical problems: All of the above.
The following conditions are caused by Streptococcus pyogenes, except: Pneumonia.
Rhizobia are important to the ecosystem because: They form nodules on the roots and help fix nitrogen.
This is the causative agent of traveler's diarrhea: Escherichia coli.
Pseudomonas are particularly infectious to patients that: Have weakened immune systems.
Which of the following statements about the causative agent of Rocky Mountain spotted fever is FALSE? It is found in soil and water.
Organisms of the Mycobacterium spp. cause: B and D.
After a prolonged treatment with antibiotics to treat a sinus infection, John develops a serious diarrhea. The most likely causative agent is: Clostridium difficile.
This bacteria is a common cause of meningitis in children Haemophilus influenzae
Staphylococcus and Streptococcus can be easily differentiated in a laboratory by which one of the following? (1pts) growth in high salt concentrations
Pseudomonas can cause the following infections: All of the above.
Which of the following bacteria are responsible for more infections and more different kinds of infections? Streptococcus
Rickettsia infects their host by: Inducing phagocytosis and reproducing in the cells.
Escherichia coli belongs to the proteobacteria.
In the scientific name Enterobacter aerogenes, Enterobacter is the genus
Use the dichotomous key in Table 10.2 to identify a gram-negative coccus. Neisseria
Nucleic acid hybridization is based on the fact that pairing between complementary bases occurs.
Biochemical tests are used to determine enzymatic activities.
Into which group would you place a photosynthetic cell that lacks a nucleus? Bacteria
Serological testing is based on the fact that antibodies react specifically with an antigen.
Into which group would you place a multicellular organism that has a mouth and lives inside the human liver? Animalia
Use the dichotomous key in Table 10.2 to identify a gram-negative rod that ferments lactose and uses citric acid as its sole carbon source. Citrobacter
Organism A has 70 moles % G+C, and organism B has 40 moles % G+C. Which of the following can be concluded from these data? The two organisms are unrelated.
Phage typing is based on the fact that bacterial viruses attack only members of a specific species.
In Figure 10.2, which figure shows the most closely related organisms? b
Which of the following is NOT based on nucleic-acid hybridization? Western blotting
Into which group would you place a photosynthetic organism that lacks a nucleus and has a thin peptidoglycan wall surrounded by an outer membrane? Proteobacteria (gram-negative bacteria)
You discovered a unicellular organism that lacks a nucleus and peptidoglycan. You suspect the organism is in the group Archaea
One of the most popular taxonomic tools is DNA fingerprinting to develop profiles of organisms. These profiles provide direct information about the similarities between nucleotide sequences.
Which of the following criteria is most useful in determining whether two organisms are related? Both are gram-positive.
Into which group would you place a unicellular organism that has 70S ribosomes and a peptidoglycan cell wall? Bacteria
Into which group would you place a multicellular heterotroph with chitin cell walls? Fungi
In Figure 10.1, species "c." is most closely related to which of the following? d
A clone is genetically identical cells derived from a single cell.
Bacteria and Archaea are similar in which of the following? considered prokaryotic cells
Which of the following is the best evidence for a three-domain system? Nucleotide sequences in ribosomal RNA vary between all three domains.
Table 10.1 1. 9+2 flagella 2. Nucleus 3. Plasma membrane 4. Peptidoglycan 5. Mitochondrion 6. Fimbriae In Table 10.1, which feature(s) is (are) found only in prokaryotes? 4,6
A genus can best be defined as a taxon composed of one or more species and below family.
Table 10.1 1. 9+2 flagella 2. Nucleus 3. Plasma membrane 4. Peptidoglycan 5. Mitochondrion 6. Fimbriae In Table 10.1, which features are found in nearly all eukarya? 2, 3, 5
A bacterial species differs from a species of eukaryotic organisms in that a bacterial species is a population of cells with similar characteristics.
What is the outstanding characteristic of the Kingdom Fungi? Members absorb dissolved organic matter.
Which of the following statements is a reason for NOT classifying viruses in one of three domains rather than in a fourth domain? Viruses are not composed of cells.
Which of the following characterizes the Domain Bacteria? prokaryotic cells; ester linkages in phospholipids
Which of the following best defines a strain? a pure culture that is not totally identical to other cultures of the same species
Which of the following statements about members of the Kingdom Plantae is FALSE? They use organic carbon sources.
In Figure 10.3, which two are most closely related? 1 and 3
Which of the following statements about the members of the Kingdom Animalia is FALSE? They undergo photosynthesis.
Which of the following statements regarding fungi is FALSE? Most fungi are pathogenic for humans.
Which of the following statements about helminths is FALSE? All are parasites.
Which of the following statements regarding protozoa is FALSE? Nearly all protozoa cause disease.
insulin-dependent diabetes who had been on prednisone received an abrasion. on penicillin. end of Jan,not healed, & she was referred to a plastic surgeon. Jan 30, a swab was cultured at 35°C on blood agar.same day, a smear was made for Gram staining. Gra dimorphic fungus.
Helminthic diseases are usually transmitted to humans by gastrointestinal route.
All of the following are characteristic of the Platyhelminthes EXCEPT that they have highly developed digestive and nervous systems.
In the malaria parasite life cycle humans are the intermediate host and mosquitoes are both the definitive host and the vector.
3 wks river rafting trip, 3 fam experienced sympt of cough, fever, & chest pain. the fam had crayfish tht they caught along the river banks. An examination of the patients' sputum revealed helminth eggs, & serum samples were positive 4 antibodies 2 Parag humans are the definitive host and crayfish are the intermediate host.
The encysted larva of the beef tapeworm is called a cysticercus.
Which of the following arthropods does NOT transmit diseases by sucking blood from a human host? houseflies
Which of the following statements about algae is FALSE? All are unicellular.
Below are paired items referring to the heartworm Dirofilaria immitis. Which of the pairs is mismatched? mosquito - definitive host
All of the following are characteristic of algae EXCEPT they are classified as plants.
A definitive host harbors which stage of a parasite? adult
What do tapeworms eat? intestinal contents
Giardia and Trichomonas are unusual eukaryotes because they lack mitochondria.
The life cycle of the fish tapeworm is similar to that of the beef tapeworm. Which of the following is the most effective preventive measure? cooking fish before eating
humans are the definitive host and crayfish are the intermediate host. cysticercus.
Which of the following arthropods does NOT transmit diseases by sucking blood from a human host? houseflies
Which of the following statements about algae is FALSE? All are unicellular.
Below are paired items referring to the heartworm Dirofilaria immitis. Which of the pairs is mismatched? mosquito - definitive host
All of the following are characteristic of algae EXCEPT they are classified as plants.
A definitive host harbors which stage of a parasite? adult
What do tapeworms eat? intestinal contents
Giardia and Trichomonas are unusual eukaryotes because they lack mitochondria.
The life cycle of the fish tapeworm is similar to that of the beef tapeworm. Which of the following is the most effective preventive measure? cooking fish before eating
Which of the following is the most effective control for malaria? eliminate Anopheles
In the microscope, you observe multinucleated amoeboid cells with sporangia that form spores. This is a(n) plasmodial slime mold.
You observe a mass of amboeba-like cells that swarm together, form a stalk, and produce spores. This is a(n) cellular slime mold.
Which of the following pairs is mismatched? cestodes - all are free-living
Which of the following is a nucleated, unicellular organism that, if you changed the incubation temperature, would form filaments with conidiospores? ascomycete
Which of the following organisms is photoautotrophic protozoan? Euglena
Which of the following pairs is mismatched? mosquito - Pneumocystis
Which of the following groups of algae does NOT produce compounds that are toxic to humans? green algae
The cells of plasmodial slime molds can grow to several centimeters in diameter because they distribute nutrients by cytoplasmic streaming.
Assume you have isolated a multicellular heterotrophic organism that produces coenocytic hyphae, motile zoospores, and cellulose cell walls. It is most likely a(n) oomycote alga.
If a larva of Echinococcus granulosus is found in humans, humans are the intermediate host.
Ringworm is caused by a(n) fungus.
Yeast infections are caused by Candida albicans.
All of the following are characteristic of lichens EXCEPT they are a symbiotic relationship of a fungus and a protozoan.
How do all viruses differ from bacteria? Viruses are not composed of cells.
Which of the following statements provides the most significant support for the idea that viruses are nonliving chemicals? They cannot reproduce themselves outside a host.
Which of the following statements about viral spikes is FALSE? They are found only on nonenveloped viruses.
Which of the following is NOT utilized to culture viruses? culture media
Bacteriophages and animal viruses do NOT differ significantly in which one of the following steps? biosynthesis
The definition of lysogeny is phage DNA is incorporated into host cell DNA.
A viroid is a(n) infectious piece of RNA without a capsid.
A clear area against a confluent "lawn" of bacteria is called a plaque
Continuous cell lines differ from primary cell lines in that continuous cell lines can be maintained through an indefinite number of generations.
Which of the following is necessary for replication of a prion? PrPSc
Which of the following statements is FALSE? The prophage makes the host cell immune to infection by other phages.
Lysogeny can result in all of the following EXCEPT immunity to reinfection by any phage.
An infectious protein is a prion
An envelope is acquired during which of the following steps? release
An example of a latent viral infection is cold sores.
A virus's ability to infect an animal cell depends primarily upon the presence of receptor sites on the cell membrane.
Assume you have isolated an unknown virus. This virus has a single, positive sense strand of RNA, and possesses an envelope. To which group does it most likely belong? togavirus
The most conclusive evidence that viruses cause cancers is provided by cancer following injection of cell-free filtrates.
Bacteriophage replication differs from animal virus replication because only bacteriophage replication involves injection of naked nucleic acid into the host cell.
Generally, in an infection caused by a DNA-containing virus, the host animal cell supplies all of the following EXCEPT DNA polymerase.
A viral species is a group of viruses that has the same genetic information and ecological niche.
Viruses that utilize reverse transcriptase belong to the virus families Hepadnaviridae and Retroviridae.
Which of the following statements about viruses is FALSE? Viruses use their own catabolic enzymes.
A lytic virus has infected a patient. Which of the following would best describe what is happening inside the patient? The virus is causing the death of the infected cells in the patient.
The following steps occur during multiplication of retroviruses. Which is the fourth step? synthesis of double-stranded DNA
Oncogenic viruses cause tumors to develop.
Which of the following is most likely a product of an early gene? DNA polymerase
Most RNA viruses carry which of the following enzymes? RNA-dependent RNA polymerase
What contributes to antigenic shift in influenza viruses? a segmented genome
A commensal bacterium may also be an opportunistic pathogen.
Which of the following statements is TRUE? At least one member must benefit in a symbiotic relationship.
A nosocomial infection is acquired during the course of hospitalization.
The major significance of Robert Koch's work is that microorganisms cause disease.
Which of the following is NOT a verified exception in the use of Koch's postulates? Some diseases are noncommunicable.
Which of the following definitions is INCORRECT? epidemic: a disease that is endemic across the world
Focal infections initially start out as local infections.
The rise in herd immunity amongst a population can directly attributed to vaccinations.
Koch observed Bacillus anthracis multiplying in the blood of cattle. What is this condition called? septicemia
Which one of the following does NOT contribute to the incidence of nosocomial infections? gram-negative cell walls
Transient microbiota differ from normal microbiota in that transient microbiota are present for a relatively short time.
Which of the following statements about nosocomial infections is FALSE? The patient was infected before hospitalization.
One effect of washing regularly with antibacterial agents is the removal of normal microbiota. This can result in increased susceptibility to disease.
Which of the following is NOT a reservoir of infection? None of the answers is correct; all of these can be reservoirs of infection.
Which of the following is NOT a communicable diseases? tetanus
Which of the following statements about biological transmission is FALSE? Houseflies are an important vector.
Which of the following definitions is INCORRECT? secondary infection: a long-lasting illness
Symptoms of disease differ from signs of disease in that symptoms are changes felt by the patient.
The science that deals with when diseases occur and how they are transmitted is called epidemiology.
Figure 14.1 shows the incidence of influenza during a typical year. Which letter on the graph indicates the endemic level? d
Emergence of infectious diseases can be attributed to all of the following EXCEPT None of the answers is correct; the emergence of infectious diseases can be attributed to all of these.
Which of the following pairs is mismatched? None of the pairs is mismatched.
Which of the following can contribute to postoperative infections? All of the answers are correct.
In Figure 14.2, when is the prevalence the highest? February
1/1 In Figure 14.2, when is the prevalence the highest? Image gallery (click for full size) Expand question and response 25) 1/1 A disease in which the causative agent remains inactive for a time before producing symptoms is referred to as latent.
Which of the following is NOT a predisposing factor of disease? None of the answers are correct; all of these are predisposing factors of disease.
In which of the following diseases can gender be considered a viable predisposing factor? urinary tract infections
In which of the following patterns of disease does the patient experience no signs or symptoms? incubation and convalescence
During a six-month period, 239 cases of pneumonia occurred in a town of 300 people. A clinical case was defined as fever of 39°C lasting >2 days with three or more symptoms (i.e., chills, sweats, severe headache, cough, aching muscles a zoonosis.
During a six-month period, 239 cases of pneumonia occurred in a town of 300 people. A clinical case was defined as fever 39°C lasting >2 days The method of transmission of the disease in Situation 14.1 was example of vehicle.
Which of the following is NOT an example of microbial antagonism? bacteria causing disease
If a prodromal period exists for a certain disease, it should occur prior to illness.
Which one of the following is NOT a zoonosis? None of the answers is correct; all of these are zoonoses.
Pseudomonas bacteria colonized the bile duct of a patient following his liver transplant surgery. This is an example of a nosocomial infection.
The graph in Figure 14.3 shows the incidence of polio in the United States. The period between 1945 and 1955 indicates a(n) epidemic level.
Which of the following statements is FALSE? The M in MRSA stands for mannitol.
Penicillin was considered a "miracle drug" for all of the following reasons EXCEPT it was the first antibiotic.
A drug that inhibits mitosis, such as griseofulvin, would be more effective against fungi
Most of the available antimicrobial agents are effective against bacteria.
Antimicrobial peptides work by disrupting the plasma membrane.
In what way are semisynthetic penicillins and natural penicillins alike? Both are based on -lactam.
The antibiotic tetracycline binds to the 30S subunit of the ribosome, as shown in Figure 20.1. The effect is to interfere with the attachment of the tRNA to mRNA-ribosome complex.
The antibiotic cycloheximide binds to the 60S subunit of the ribosome, as shown in Figure 20.2. The effect is to prevent peptide bond formation in prokaryotes.
Which of the following methods of action would be bacteriostatic? inhibition of protein synthesis
Which of the following antimicrobial agents is recommended for use against fungal infections? amphotericin B
Table 20.1 The following data were obtained from a broth dilution test. min bactericidal concentration of antibiotic x 15 g/ml.
Table 20.1 The following data were obtained from a broth dilution test. In Table 20.1, the minimal inhibitory concentration of antibiotic X is 10 g/ml.
More than half of our antibiotics are produced by bacteria.
To date, most of our natural antibiotics have been found to be produced by members of what genus? Streptomyces
Which of the following is mismatched? Florey and Chain - identification of Penicillium as the producer of penicillin
Which compound would be the most useful to treat candidiasis? flucytosine
Which of the following antibiotics does NOT interfere with cell wall synthesis? macrolides
Which of the following statements is FALSE? Interferon inhibits glycolysis.
Protozoan and helminthic diseases are difficult to treat because their cells are structurally and functionally similar to human cells.
Which of the following organisms would MOST likely be sensitive to natural penicillin? Streptococcus pyogenes
Which of the following statements about drug resistance is FALSE? It is found only in gram-negative bacteria.
Which of the following does NOT constitute an advantage of using two antibiotics together? Two are always twice as effective as one.
Drug resistance occurs when antibiotics are used indiscriminately.
The following results were obtained from a disk-diffusion test for microbial susceptibility to antibiotics. Staphylococcus aureus was the test organism. In Table 20.2, the most effective antibiotic tested was D
Table 20.2 The following results were obtained from a disk-diffusion test for microbial susceptibility to antibiotics. Staphylococcus aureus was the test organism. In Table 20.2, the antibiotic that exhibited bactericidal action was The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.
The following results were obtained from a disk-diffusion test for microbial susceptibility to antibiotics. Staphylococcus aureus was the test organism. In Table 20.2, which antibiotic would be most useful for treating a Salmonella infection? The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.
Which of the following would be selective against the tubercle bacillus? ethambutol - inhibits mycolic acid synthesis
In the presence of penicillin, a cell dies because it undergoes lysis.
Niclosamide prevents ATP generation in mitochondria. You would expect this drug to be effective against helminths
Table 20.3 The following data were obtained from a broth dilution test: Table 20.3 The following data were obtained from a broth dilution test: The data in Table 20.3 show that these bacteria developed resistance to antibiotics.
Which of the following statements about drugs that competitively inhibit DNA polymerase or RNA polymerase is FALSE? They cause cellular plasmolysis.
The structures of the influenza drug Tamiflu and sialic acid, the substrate for influenza virus's neuramidase, are shown in Figure 20.4. What is the method of action of Tamiflu? competitive inhibition
Which of the following does NOT affect eukaryotic cells? semisynthetic penicillins
Mebendazole is used to treat cestode infections. It interferes with microtubule formation; therefore, it would NOT affect bacteria
The antibiotic actinomycin D binds between adjacent G-C pairs, thus interfering with transcription.
Use of antibiotics in animal feed leads to antibiotic-resistant bacteria because the antibiotics kill susceptible bacteria, but the few that are naturally resistant live and reproduce, and their progeny repopulate the host animal.
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