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Part II ACS <>

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Most common STD in the U.S.   chlamydia  
STD associated with Reiter's syndrome   chlamydia  
STD with yellow odorless discharge   chlamydia  
STD associated with NGU (non-gonococcal genito-urinary infection   chlamydia  
A lymph-related condition that chlamydia may lead to   lymphogranuloma vereneum. (enlarged lymph nodes cause lymph blockage which leads to elephantitis  
AKA for gonorrhea   the clap  
STD with copious amounts of clear discharge   gonorrhea  
Gonorrhea is gram negative or positive?   negative  
Two locations males get gonorrhea   urethra and epididymus  
Three types of inflammation females experience with gonorrhea   vaginitis, salpingitis, arthritis  
Herpes type I location   the mouth  
Herpes type II location   the genitals or anus  
STD with small swollen red vesicles that ooze   herpes  
Name 3 drugs used to treat herpes   valtrex, acyclovir, L-lysine  
STD with green, foul smelling,itchy presentation   trichromonas  
STD that presents with rapid forming ulcers which bleed   chancroid  
hemophiles ducrey is an associated symptom of which STD? what is it?   chancroid. a soft ulcer  
buboes is an associated symptom of which STD? what is it?   chancroid. large swollen inguinal lymph nodes  
organism which causes syphilis   treponema pallidium  
primary syphilis presentation   small hard painless lesions  
incubation period for secondary syphilis   ~12 weeks  
Two presentations of secondary syphilis   condylomata lata(warts) and alopecia (loss of hair)  
Tertiary syphilis appears in what % of untreated cases   30% or 1/3  
Tertiary syphilis may cause the following presentations. (use this acronym) ACDGT "all coochies do good tricks"   argyll robertson pupil, charcot's joints, dementia, gummas, tabes dorsalis (dorsal column degeneration and its associated symptoms  
Congenital syphilis presents with Hutchinson's triad, name the 3 attributes   short pegged teeth, interstitial keratosis, and deafness. (some sources say saddle nosed too)  
Name 4 labs for syphilis   dark field microscopy. FTA-ABS. RPR rapid plasma reagin. VDRL venereal disease research lab  
Name 2 AKAs for candida   candida albicans, thrush  
Candida in females commons presents as   cheesy white vaginal walls...yuck  
Name two treatments for candida   lactobacillis, acidophilus  
This STD is associated with "beefy red lesions" and "Donovan's bodies"   granuloma inguinale  
Cauliflower lesions are associated with this STD   HPV  
What strains (#s) are associated with genital HPV   16 and 18  
waxy papules and multiple skin tags   molluscum contagiosum  
An STD associated with South Americans and an IgG reaction   bullous pemphigoid  
An STD associated with a possibly lethal autoimmune reaction the causes blistering eruptions   bullous pemphigoid  
An STD associated with blacks and asians and an IgA reaction   dermatitis herpetiformis  
dermatits herpetiformis may cause which 3 symptoms   bullous lesions, gluten sensitivity, and prolonged itching  
Two scientific AKAs for "mood disorders"   Affect Disorder, Thymic disorder  
Treatment for bipolarism   lithium  
"Cutters" associated with   unipolar depression  
Name 3 types of schizophrenia   Disorganized, Catatonic, Paranoid  
Describe disorganized schizophrenia and give its AKA   unpredictable mood swings. hebephrenic  
Describe Catatonic schizophrenia   patient had rigid posture and flat facial expression  
Describe paranoid schizophrenia   why are you reading my flash cards??!? !?? who are you??!?!?!  
symptoms of schizophrenia need to be present for how long to make a diagnosis   6 months  
a term for a person with schizophrenic symptoms that occur periodically but don't last the required 6 months   schizophreniform  
Three natural treatments for seasonal affect disorder   light, exercise, comfort foods  
Umbrella category of mental disorders in which physical symptoms are associated   somatoform disorders  
Name for type of disorder in which a person is convinced there is something wrong with their body   dysmorphic disorder  
Bulimia is a food disorder which may lead to...   barrett's esophagus  
Eating inedible things, such as dirt...   Pica  
Psychic disorder which CAUSES physical disorder is called...   Conversion disorder  
Preoccupation with becoming ill   hypochondriac  
Briquet's syndrome, give the AKA and description   somatization disorder. person is under 30, usually female, reoccuring complaints that something is seriouslly wrong with them, may be continually seeking medical attention  
Psychogenic pain AKA   somatoform disorder  
Fear and anxiety following an event causing panic attacks and sleep disorders   Post traumatic stress disorder  
Condition in which a person is mostly in a state of reality, but very low self esteem and constantly in defensive mode   Neurotic, neurosis  
Condition in which a person is mostly OUT of reality, no regard for self or others, verbal therapy is useless   psychotic, psychosis  
Masochist likes what? Sadist likes what?   receiving abuse. giving abuse  
Voyer likes what? Exhibitionist likes what?   watching. being watched  
Childhood disorder associated with poor development and microencephaly   FAS: fetal alcohol syndrome  
Child in its own world, slow language development   autism  
2 possible causes for autism   vaccinations and amoxicillin  
childhood disorder with poor focus, restless leg, sleep disorders, impulsive patterns   ADD: attention deficit disorder  
Childhood trauma that causes short term multiple personalities   dissociative disorder  
Defense Mechanism devoid of feelings   denial  
Defense mechanism of ignoring feelings   repression  
Defense mechanism of blaming it on another   projection  
Defense mechanism of acting young than one is   regression  
Defense Mechanism of acting out of place   displacement  
Defense mechanism of acting opposite of normal, i.e., laughing in hysteria   reaction formation  
Defense mechanism of finding an excuse for behavior   rationalizing  
Defense mechanism of transferring emotion to another being (parent, doctor, etc.)   transference  
this type of disorder is in between a neurosis and a psychosis   personality disorder  
Therapy aimed to make subject associate bad behavior with something negative   aversion therapy  
Therapy aimed at making a subject avoid something   avoidance therapy  
Therapy which analyzes underlying thoughts   psychotherapy  
Therapy which changes life style, i.e., in-patient, half-way house   milieu therapy  
ECT stands for   electro-convulsion therapy  
Therapy associated with "Hierarchy of needs"   Maslow therapy  
Therapy associated with hypnosis   Erickson therapy  
Therapy associated with ID, EGO, and SUPER EGO   Freudian therapy  
ID relates to what? EGO relates to what? SUPER EGO relates to what?   ID = primative or child. EGO = reality or control. SUPER EGO = conscience or guilt.  
Therapy associated with analytical psychology   Jung therapy  
Classical conditioning: Pavlovian response Name an unconditional stimulus, unconditional response conditional stimulus, conditional response.   food, salivation, bell, salivate to bell  
Operant conditioning AKA is? which creates faster learning? neg or pos?   Skinner conditioning. negative is faster.  
Never give for gasoline poisoning   emetics: vomiting agents  
Most common vomiting agent   ipecac, comes from roots and rhizomes of ipecacuanha plant  
Mildest vomiting agent   salt water  
Safest substance to treat alkaline or acid poisoning   water  
Vomiting is indicated or contraindicated for swallowing bleach or cleaning products?   contra indicated  
Contraindications to using charcoal as a universal antidote: (use acronym) DIALS   DDT, Alcohol (ethanol or methanol), Iodine, Lithium Sulpher  
Use Heimlich when a person is choking and...   there is no sound coming out  
For an unconscious adult who is choking provide...   abdominal thrusts above umbilicus  
For an unconscious infant who is choking provide...   back blows and oral finger sweeps  
Anaphylactic shock due to:   Major inflammation reaction  
Hypovolemic shock due to:   decreased blood volume  
2 signs of carbon monoxide poisoning   cherry red lips or cyanosis  
CA-MRSA stands for   community acquired methicillin resistant staph aureus  
CA-MRSA is common in what group? and what anatomical location?   Kids and athletes. skin and lungs  
Normal MRSA is common in what group? and anatomical location   hospitals and nursing homes.in the joints  
Name the 4 D's required in a malpractice suit   Duty, Dereliction, Damage, Direct Causation  
Is standard of care affected by furthered education(diplomates etc.)?   Yes, although a Dr. is responsible for reasonable and average standard of care, a higher degree necessitates a higher standard.  
What can constitute a breech of contract? Use acronym "CAPED"   Confidentiality, Abandonment ( not having a doc to cover your vacation), Promising a cure one can't deliver, Exceed patient's consent, Doctor is held vicariously responsible  
Define tort   a civil wrong. a person's behavior has caused loss or damage to another. something against the expectations of society  
Adjusting without permission is classified as...   assault and battery  
Name 4 types of civil suits. Use acronym BT PM. "bong tokes at night"   Breech, tort, personal damages, malpractice  
Type of consent required to be communicated about possible risks of chiropractic care   Informed consent  
The statue of limitations allows for how much time for an adult to file suit?   7 years  
the statue of limitations allows for how much time for a minor to file suit   18 years  
Name the tax form used to estimate and pay taxes quarterly   1040ES  
Who selects the state board of examiners?   The governor  
What is the role of the state board of examiners?   Protecting the citizens  
Law term for a wrongful act?   Malfeasance  
Why are the results of a binding arbitration different than the results of a trial?   A binding arbitration can not be appealed or disputed.  
what does "Res Ipsa Loquitor" mean?   "The thing speaks for itself"  
You're the defendant in a suit. Who does direct examination?   The defense attorney.  
You're the defendant in a suit. Who does cross examination?   The prosecuting attorney.  
Who is responsible for damages in a "comparative negligence" ruling?   Both doctor and patient.  
What does "voir dire" mean?   "to speak the truth"  
What does "Prima Nocere" mean?   "first do no harm"  
What is an anxiolytic drug?   A drug used to treat anxiety  
Name 5 anxiety drugs. Use acronym HBC T2   Haldol, Benzodiazepine, Chlorpromazine, Torazine, and tranquilizers. Basically they end in -ine.  
Name 2 tranquilizers that cause falls in the elderly   Valium and Librium  
What is the memory trick to remember blood thinner drugs   "-in's thin the blood" coumadin, Aspirin, etc.  
What 2 major vitamins thin the blood?   Vitamin C and E  
What does the drug Dicumarol do?   thins the blood  
Insectisides are what class of poisons?   Organophosphates  
what are common side affects of insecticide poisoning? Use acronym SLUD   salivation, lacrimation, urination, defication  
What is the most common drug antidote given for organophosphate poisoning? What side affects may it cause?   Atropine. Dry eyes, nose, and mouth.  
Anabolic steroid use can cause pathophysiology in what organ?   the liver  
Anabolic steroid use may do what to a growing child?   Prematurely close growth plates  
T/F Chloroform must be ingested to cause bodily harm? What acute condition can it cause?   False. Inhalation may cause harm as well. Acute liver failure.  
This type of poisoning may happen if working around low heat pottery kilns.   Cyanide.  
What mechanism do cyanide and arsenic shut down?   The electron transport chain.  
Which of the NLMEB white blood cells does lead poisoning affect?   basophils  
Adrenal dysfunction and bone loss may occur due to prolonged use of this medically prescribed injection...   corticosteroids  
ANS dysfunction may result from prolonged use of this substance...   ionizide  
L-dopa is administered as a treatment to which movement disorder?   Parkinson's  
An AKA for depression drugs   Dysthymic drugs  
What are monamine oxide (MAO) inhibitors used to treat?   Depression  
What do tricyclic drugs treat?   Depression  
This drugs inhibits the re-uptake of seratonin in depression disorders.   Prozac  
Name 3 possible effects of long term Aspirin use.   GI bleeding, kidney irritation, tinnitus  
What biomolecule does aspirin inhibit?   Prostagladin 2  
What is the antidote for NSAID overdose?   N-acetylcysteine  
What is the antidote for apirin overdose?   activated charcoal  
This syndrome has a history of infecting children whom have had a virus and have taken apsirin.   What is Reye's syndrome Alex?  
Which two organs does Reye's syndrome tend to damage in children?   The liver is damaged and the brain experiences encephalopathy.  
What is the classical triad of Reye's syndrome symptoms?   Rash, vomiting, seizures. (possibly amnesia too)  
The antibiotic Streptomycin has been known to cause what side affect?   hearing problems  
Name 2 possible side affects of penicillin.   Rash and anaphylactic shock if the patient is allergic.  
Amoxicillin has been known to cause what two side affects?   Diminished brain development (autism, and gi neurotransmitter problems.  
Ritalin is taken for what condition?   ADD  
Tagamet is taken for what condition?   ulcers  
What does Lipitor do?   reduces blood cholesterol  
What does Celebrex do?   it is used to relieve pain from osteoarthritis by inhibiting cox-2 inflammatory agents.  
What does Digitalis does?   it is a plant based derivative which increases heart contractility.  
What does the drug Dilantin do?   decreases seizure activity.  
What is the most common endocrine cause of carpal tunnel syndrome?   Hypothyroidism  
What is the medical term for being far sighted (can only see far away things)?   Presbyopia.  
what is the medical term for age-related hearing loss?   Presbycusis  
What field of vision goes out with macular degeneration, central, or peripheral?   central  
What is the most common cause of geriatric hearing loss?   Accumulation of cerumen.  
Pre-senile amensia is an AKA for what geriatric condition?   alzheimer's  
What is the medical term for the clinically insignificant condition "barnacles of old age?"   Seborrheic keratosis  
Geriatric glomerular filtration rate is generally running at what percentage of a fully functioning young kidney?   50% less  
Geriatrics sense of taste declines roughly what percentage, in comparison with a young, fully functioning person.   65% decline  
The geriatric population may lack many healthy indicators on a blood lab. What are 3 indicators that remain at normal levels?   Glucose, Calcium, and WBCs.  
Decreased fluid and decreased fiber leads to...   constipation  
Incontinence, the inability to control one's bowels, may have which 3 causes? Use acronym "SIN"   Stress, infection, neurogenic (cauda equina)  
A flat skin macule less than 1cm   freckle  
Raised, solid skin macule less than 1 cm   wart  
Raised, serous skin vesicle less than .5cm   herpes  
Raised, pustule less than .5cm   acne  
what is actinic keratosis   pre-stage squamous cell carcinoma  
Rodent Ulcers are associated with what type of cancer?   Basal cell carcinoma  
Which skin cancer is the most invasive?   melanoma  
Blood vessel sarcoma with purple skin lesions   Kaposi's sarcoma  
silver scales, pitted nails, extensor presentation   psoriasis  
AKA for eczema   contact dermatitis  
Medical term for lice   pediculosis  
Medical term for ringworm   tinea capitis  
This skin is caused by ticks carrying a spirochete bacteria   Lyme disease  
This skin condition is associated with a "herald patch lesion"   pityriasis dermatitis  
Butterfly rash presents on the face with this predominately female condition   SLE. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus  
Which population gets acne vulgaris?   Adolescents  
Which population gets acne rosacea?   elderly  
Childhood disease associated with golden flaky crust.   Impetigo  
Medical name for Michael Jackson's de-pigmentation disease.   Vitiligo  
What is the name for a raised red birthmark.   Hemangioma  
What is the medical term for epidermal thickening   lichenification  
What is the name for the white spots on inside of mouth, associated with measles?   Koplick spots  
Thrush and leukoplakia are both white spots in the mouth. How can they be differentiated?   Thrush spots can be peeled off.  
Name the disease associated with a "beefy red tongue"   Scarlet Fever  
Pitted nails are associated with this skin condition   psoriasis  
clubbed nails are associated with this breathing disorder   COPD chronic obstructive pulmonary disorder  
Medical term for ingrown toenail   onychocryptosis  
What is placenta previa?   implantation of placenta in lower 1/3 of uterus  
What is placenta abruptio?   Detached placenta  
What is placenta accreta?   Placenta won't slough off after birth.  
What does the corpus luteum of the ovarian follicle do?   helps begin and retain implantation of egg by releasing progestrone and estrogen  
Name the 2 primary functions of oxytocin.   Milk let down into nipple and distension of cervix and uterus  
Name the primary role of prolactin.   Causes mammary glands to produce milk.  
What is the AKA for females' paraurethral glands, which cause female ejaculation?   Skene's glands  
What is the AKA for females' vulvovaginal glands, which provide lubrication for the vagina?   Bartholin's glands  
What is dysmenorrhea?   difficult or painful menses  
What dyspareunia?   difficult or painful intercourse.  
What is dytocia?   difficult and painful delivery  
what is procidentia?   prolapsed uterus  
Name the condition in which a woman develops HBP during pregnancy and protein is found in blood lab.   Preeclampsia.  
What are the components of HELLP syndrome during pregnancy?   Hemolysis. Elevated liver enzymes. Low Platelets.  
Define Nagle's rule, which gives the estimated date of delivery.   1 year, minus 3 months, add 7 days to first day of woman's last menstrual period.  
Where in the female anatomy does fertilization usually occur?   the ampulla  
Name the sign that presents with blueing of the vagina caused by estrogen during pregnancy.   Chadwick's sign  
Where is the linea negra found in pregnancy?   Running from pubis to umbilicus.  
What are Braxton-Hicks contractions?   False contractions that happen roughly after 3 months.  
Define quickening.   Mother feels baby move.  
Define lightening.   Fetus begins to descend to presenting area 2 weeks before labor.  
Define effacement in obstetrics.   Thinning of the cervix.  
Define the 1st stage of labor.   From 1st contraction to fully dialated cervix (10cm) This is the longest stage.  
Define the 2nd stage of labor.   Dilation to delivery of fetus.  
Define the 3rd stage of labor.   Delivery to expulsion of placenta.  
Define the obstretics term lochia.   Post partum, the vagina has a discharge of mucus, blood, and placental tissue for 4-6 weeks.  
What does the acronym APGAR stand for? What is a perfect score?   Appearance. Pulse. Grimace. Activity. Respiration. 10.  
What is the normal pulse range for a newborn?   120-140 bpm  
What is normal respiration rate for a newborn?   around 44 bpm  
What would you classify a baby as if it were less then 37 weeks in utero, under 2500g and had no strong cartilage formation of the ears?   Premature.  
What is meconium?   Newborns first few bowel movements. It is usually green and sticky.  
A baby born with lanugo has what on it's body?   White, fluffy, downey hair.  
At what age does the posterior fontanelle close?   2 months.  
At what age does the anterior fontanelle close?   18 months.  
In regards to a new born baby, the "string sign" on xray indicated what gastro-intestinal condition?   pyloric stenosis.  
Name the major primitive reflexes. Use the phrase "Clearly My Balls Got Real Soft Tonight"   Chvostek's. Moro's. Babinski's. Grasp. Rooting. Suckling.  
What is the suckling reflex?   Tap under lip and baby does sucking movements.  
What is the rooting reflex?   Touch their cheek and they turn towards the stimulus.  
What is the tonic neck reflex?   Turn baby's head to side. Ipsilateral extension of limbs and contralateral flexion.  
What is the AKA for Moro's reflex?   Startle reflex. Baby raises both arms in response to sudden loud noise.  
What antibody crosses plcenta from mom to fetus?   IgG. "Gee mom thanks."  
What antibody is very high in mother's milk?   IgA.  
Cow's milk may cause what condition in a newborn?   Iron deficient anemia.  
Which 2 foods are most allergic to most newborns?   Whole milk and wheat products.  
What is the least likely allergic food to newborns?   Rice.  
What is the infant condtion marasmus?   Severe protein deficiency in a child under 1. Basically kwashoirkor is the same thing, only over 18 months.  
What is the most common malnutrition disease in infants in the U.S.?   obesity  
Name a commonly suspected cause of cerebral palsy.   Anoxia at birth.  
What is the newborn condition "Milia"   white heads on baby's face  
Name two tests for infant hip dysplasia.   Ortolani's and Barlow's  
Newborn with conjunctivitis and blindness may be due to what reason?   Mom had active vaginal infection.  
Folate deficiency in utero may lead to what type of defects?   Neural tube defects.  
Which strain of hepatitis is often contracted at day care centers?   Hepatitis A  
What is the most common bacteria spread at day care centers?   Giardia lambia  
Inspiratory stridor is associated which which condition?   Pertussis or whooping cough  
Mumps is associated with what genital condition in adults?   orchitis  
Raccoon sign and Battle Sign occur in what newborn condition?   Basal skull fractures.  
What psychological test is called "Rorschach Test"   Inkblot.  
Wechsler Test is associated with what mental measure?   IQ  
What is dystocia?   prolonged abnormal labor  
What is colostrum?   First discharge of breast milk.  
What is menarche?   a girls first menstral cycle.  
What is Mittleschmerz condition?   pain at ovulation.  
What is cholasma, or melasma?   brown hyper-pigmentation of  


   





 
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