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OB chp 23, 24, 25

        Help!  

Question
Answer
which c-section incision is the modern type   low vertical with curve  
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which c-section incision has a high incidence of rupture   classic  
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uterine rupture will cause disruption of labor, fetal distress, vag. bleeding, hypoTN, shock, pain (10%):which one is a tool to help dx rupture   fetal distress  
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T or F previous c-section for dystocia or cephalopelvic disporp. contradicts a trail of labor   false, doesn't contradict  
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does a previous classic or Tshaped uterine incision contradict a trail of labor   yes  
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implement of VBAC could avoid __,000 c-sections annually   200,000  
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after thorough counseling that wts the individual benefits and risks of VBAC, the ultimate decision to attempt this procedure or undergo a repeat c-section should be made by the ___ and ___   pt and physician  
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risk of VBAC incidence of uterine rupture __%   0.8  
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the essential first sign of trouble is _____ and is the most reliable sign of uterine rupture   decreased FHR  
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T or F intrauterine pressure monitoring is ideal to dx uterine rupture   false, difficult to  
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this type of augmentation is controversial and studies show it may increase rupture incidence   oxytocin augmentation  
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what is the most common indication for c-section   previous c-section  
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T or F c-section is the most freq. performed operation in the Us   T  
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a trial of labor is successful in _% to _% of women who had a low-transverse incision: 40%-50%, 20%-40%, 60% to 80%   60% to 80%  
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continuous electronic FHR monitoring represents the best means of detecting   uterine rupture  
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what age must the pt be at least to perform a tubal ligation   21  
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consent for tubal ligation is only valid for __ days   180  
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a total of __ days must pass b/n the date the consent is signed and the date the procedure is performed   30  
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if pt is not hemodynamically stable for a tubal you should delay for _ to _ wks   6 to 8  
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T or F you should evaluate neonate prior to tubal   T  
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what is a major risk assoc. with anesthesia for postpartum tubal   aspiration  
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T or F opioids given prior to can decrease delay of gastric emptying   F; can increase, so avoid prior to tubal procedure  
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metoclopramide may accelerate gastric emptying in pts who have recieved an opioid   F; may not  
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when does gastroesphageal reflux return to normal postpartum   2nd postpartum day  
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an hour after 4th stage of labor pt is at risk for   bleeding; therfore there is a 8 hr wait period prior to tubal  
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__% tubal sterilizations worldwide   75  
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MAC greater than _ may inhibit oxytocin   1; and cause uterine atony  
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metoclopriamide increase NMB duration with sCh   false, prolongs  
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most NDMB actions are prolonged except   atracurium and cisatracurium  
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T or F sCh action is prolonged during preg.   T  
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this type of anesthesia provides excellent operation conditions for postpartum tubals   regional  
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what level should the regional be at for tubal   T4  
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it is advised to wait _ hrs postpartum for a tubal   8  
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regional may require more anesthesia secondary to decreased levels of   progesterone  
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lg volumes required of regionals can possible cause   cardiotoxicity  
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this medicine is contradicted with nursing mothers b/c of possible adverse effects of prostaglandin sysnthetase inhibitors on neonates   ketorolac  
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c-section rate exceeds __%   24  
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_ to _% of all maternal deaths due to anesthesia (general), failed airway common etilogy   3 to 12%  
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versed is recommended as part of anesthesia   false  
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anxiolysis are rarely given b/c mother wants to remeber birth   T  
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before regional _to_cc/kg given _mins prior reduces hypoTN and improves uteroplacental circulation   15 to 20; 30  
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what type of IVF should be avoided   glucose containing solutions  
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avoid hyperventilation it can cause   uterine artery vasoconstriction  
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should you be concerned if mother has ST segment changes   No!(can be common) but rule out possible causes(hypervolemia, tachy, VAE, coronay vasospasm, anmiotic emboli)  
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use of doppler u/s should be routinely used for VAE   false  
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what triad should be rely on for VAE and txment   CP, desat., arrthy, right-sided strain; IVF and 5 to 10 degree reverse trendelenburg  
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all pregnant pt should receive what med before GA   aspiration prophylaxis (H2 blockers)  
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prevention of aspiration includes   avoid GA; awake intubation with diff. airway; cricoid, RSI, untubation with cuffed tube  
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goal pharmacotherapy of gastric secretions is to __ gastric vol, and __ pH   decrease, increase  
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these drugs don't alter pH of existing gastric contents   H2 receptor antagonist  
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this drug increases gastric emptying and increases LES tone and antiemetic   metoclopramide  
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what is the most common complication of regional anesthesia   hypotension  
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hypotension results from increased venous capacitance and decreased SVR from   sympathectomy from the blockade (avoid by IVF)  
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what things can be done to prevent hypotension   IVF, left uterine placement, prophylactic vasopressors  
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routinely administer prohylactic vasopressors is advised   false  
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which prophylactic vasopressors is preferred   ephedrine; give phenylephrine instead for tachy pt with low BP  
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what are some s/s of a high spinal   complete motor and sensory block, hypotn, brady, unconsciousness, loss of protective reflexes and respiratory arrest  
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if pt goes into cardiac collapse what should you do and should avoid   should intubate and paralysis, shouldn't sedate  
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how often does a high spinal occur out of 50,000   1 in 50,000  
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prevention of a high spinal   administer test dose, aspirate before injecting, and give 5cc increments and wait/watch  
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convulsions, unconsciousness, arrhythmias, cardiovascular collapse are s/s of   local toxicity  
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bupivicaine has a 4 hr 1/2 life and can cause ___ heart ___   complete heart block  
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what is the recommendation for txment of bupivacaine toxicity   20% intralipids; 1cc/kg bolus than 0.25cc/kg/min infusion with CPR  
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persistent neurologic deficit is common and occurs after administration of spinal or epidural   rare  
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transient neurologic syndrome (TNS) occured after intrathecal injection of   hyperbaric 5% lidocaine  
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s/s of TNS   burning pain and dysethesthia in the L5- S1 dermatones usually start after spinal and can last for an hr to 4 days  
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TNS is more common in what position, type of pt, and outpt surgeries   lithotomy and obese  
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TNS occurs most in all locals   false, greater with 5% lidocaine  
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what dermatones are effected in TNs   L5-S1  
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what is the recommended therapy for TNS with severe pain   NSAID or oral opioids  
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how long can TNS last   hour to 4 days  
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what can help reduce maternal nausea   supplemental o2  
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support person can have a significant contribution to the delivery process   true  
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there is a increase risk of VAE with   exteriorizing the uterus  
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only general when truly ___ conditions exists   stat  
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considerations of choice of anesthetic technique are   urgency of procedure, choice of mother, health of mother and fetus  
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this type of needle decrease PDPH (postdural puncture H/A)   non-cutting needles  
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what type of drug is commonly used for spinals   0.75% bupivacaine  
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what is 0.75% bupivacaine duration and dosage range   60-125mins and 7.5mg-15mg  
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does 5% lido or 0.75% bupicacaine have a longer duration   bupivacaine  
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epidural absolute dose is _ to _ times greater than spinal   5 to 10  
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an epidural high spinal may be caused from   SA injection subarachnoid  
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should aspiration propylaxtis still be give for regional   yes; still at risk for aspiration  
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signficant coagulation is an indication for GA   true  
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inadequate regional anesthesia is an indication for GA   true  
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what is the most popular induction agent   thiopental  
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does thiopental cross the placenta   yes  
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thiopenthal has what kind of hemodynamic effects   negative inotrope and vasodilator  
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propofol is often used as an induction agent   false; never used in practice  
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the use of ketamine can increase BP by __%   14  
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lg does of ketamine can __ uterine tone   increse  
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what are ketamines hemodynamic effects   indirect sympathomimetic  
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ketamine should be used in severe hypotn   false, can cause myocardial depression, decreased CO, hypotn  
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induction of asthmatic, modest hypovolemic pts should give   ketamine  
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this induction agent can cause dysphoria and hallucinations;   ketamine (give versed suggested)  
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this induction agent is excellent choice in hemodynamically compromised pt   etomidate  
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pain and myoclonus may occur with this induction agent   etomidate  
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midazolam only indication may be contraindication to   other agents  
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versed is commonly used   false  
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Sch crossed placenta and paralyzes fetus   false; ionized  
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homozygous atypical pseudocholinesterase may result in __ infant   apneic  
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high does volatile may induce   uterine relaxation and post partum bleeding  
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when should volatile be discontinued   uterine atony occurs  
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maternal hypotension may cause fetal   hypoxia and acidosis  
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longer I-D time with GA doesn't effect fetus   false  
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infants have a lower 1 min apgar score with what type of anesthesia   GA  
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5 min apgar scores differ greater with GA or regional   false; when proper resuscitation is given  
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U-D time of greater than _ mins:bad apgar, low pH score, regardles of anesthetic tech.   3 min.  
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