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OB, Peds, etc.

        Help!  

Question
Answer
the five most frequent major surgical procedures performed in the first week of life?   CDH, omphalocele and gastroschisis, tracheoesophageal fistula (TEF), intestinal obstruction, and meningomyelocele.  
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Which of the five most freq. major surgical procedures are obvious at birth?   CDH, omphalocele and gastroschisis, and meningomyelocele  
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this condition is seen in weeks 5-10 of fetal life abdominal contents extruded into extraembronic coelom and does not return at week 10   oomphalocele  
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what is oomphalocele covered with?   amnion  
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where is the umbilical cord located in a oomphalocele   apex of the sac  
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T or F oomphalocele is associated with a high risk of associated congential anomalies?   True  
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CHD is associated with what % of oomphalocele   25%  
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what is Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome consist of?   omphalocele, mental retardation, hypoglycemia, large tongue, congenital heart disease  
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when does the gut returnto the abdominal cavity   10th week  
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what does the amnion do?   protects the abdominal contents from infection and the loss of extracellular fluid  
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T or F gastroschisis develops later in fetal life?   True  
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T or F there is a high incidence of associated congenital anomalies with gastroschisis but not with omphalocele   False; vice versa  
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this develops after abdominal content returned   gastrochisis  
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how does gastrochisis develop?   interruption of the omphalomesenteric artery, which results in ischemia and atrophy of the various layers of the abdominal wall at the base of the umbilical cord. the gut herniates through this tissue defect.  
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where is the umbilical cord located in gastrochisis   one side of the intestinal contents  
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you have a high risk for what in gastrochisis   infection; no protective covering  
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how can you dx oomphalocele and gastrochisis   alpha-fetoprotein (ATF), ultrasound  
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what causes high levels of ATF?   inadequate closure of the abdominal wall and neural tube.  
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high levels of ATF means?   concerns of abdominal wall defect or nerual tube defect in the fetus  
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which is more urgent gastrochisis or omphalocele   gastrochisis  
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preop: respiratroy failure is associated with____   omphalocele  
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preop: gastroschisis is associated with   infection  
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during gastrochisis and omphalocele surgery it is important to have ___ ____ ____ when gut is returning to the abd.   lower extrem. pulse ox; to make sure on occlusion of the fem. art. is not being occluded.  
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preop: it is important to ___ gastrochisis to prevent infection   bagging  
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preop care   search for assoc. anomalies, ABC's, fluids and electrolytes, CVP, A/L, ventilation, muscle relax, no nitrous,  
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ways to protect the bowel, minimize fluid and temp. loss with gastroschisis   bagging  
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a difficult airway can be anticipated in pts with   beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome  
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fluid vol administration often is balance with   salt solution  
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nitrous oxide should not be used b/c?   it increases the gas in the intestines  
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if primary closure is impossible what is incorporated?   silo  
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muscle relaxant are required during closure of the abd?   it is necessary to allow closure of the abd.  
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post-op: the increased abdominal pressure can have affect the kidneys by?   reducing the circulation to the kidney resulting in release of renin.  
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what can the HTN be associated with during increased abd. pressure during closure   renin release from decrease circulation to the kidneys  
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postop concerns after closure?   lower extrem. edema and HTN  
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diaphragm forms b/n   5 to 10 weeks  
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the gut is herniated or extruded to the extraembryonic coelom during   ninth or tenth week  
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how does the congenital diaphragmatic hernia develop   in the 9th or 10th week the developing gut returns to the peritoneal cavity, if there is a delay or incomplete closure of the diaphragm, or it the gut returns early, a diaphragmatic hernia develops  
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what is not known for sure about the diaphragm   why defects or holes occur in the diahragm  
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CDH occurs in how many live births and still births?   1 in 4000 1 in 2000 still  
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what is the mortality of CDH   40-50%  
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90% of CDH is ___-side   left  
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what portion of the diaphragm closes later   left (foramen of bochdalek)  
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what is the right-sided foramen called?   foramen of morgagni  
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what can develop during CDH that puts the neonate at more risk   pulm. hypoplasia, hyper-reactive pulm. vasulature, LV hypoplasia  
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how do you dx CDH   ultrasound  
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the occurence of symptoms of the clinical presentaion of CDH depends on   the degree of herniation and interference with pulm. fx.  
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what are the initial clinial findings with CDH   scaphoid abd. (sunken in abd) decreased breathe sounds(L), and resp. failure  
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excessive airway pressures with CDH can cause   a high risk for pneumo., barotrauma  
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appears week 2-4 of later, nonbilous vomitting   pyloric stenosis  
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untreated pyloric stenosis leads to   hypokalemic, hyponatremic, hypochloremic, metabolic alkalosis, 33-36% with hyperkalemia later:respiatory acidosis  
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how is pyloric stenosis dx   H&P, palpable "olive" or mass, u/s, xray  
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what is a medical emergency   pyloric stenosis  
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why is atrophine given prior to rapid sequence of an neonate   to produce some kind of sympathetic response since theirs isn't developed  
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conventional ventilation with permissive hypercapnia60-65 favored with   CDH  
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preop diaphragmatic hernia avoid   hypothermia, acidosis which can precipitate pulm. HTN, nitrous, muscle relaxants, diff. abd. closure  
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patho of CDH   cardiac development may be impaired, LV hypoplasia with attenuated muscle mass and cavity size  
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newborn   first 24 hrs  
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crista dividends   a structure that divides right atrium  
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how does the foramen ovale remain open   RAP>LAP  
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the Pulm. vascular bed has a high vascular resistance b/c   the alveoli are relatively closed and filled with fluid and bld vessels compressed  
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decreased PAO2 and decreased pH   increase PVR  
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the ductus artenosus represents a low-resist. syst. b/c it is   dilated 2ndary to a low PAO2  
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the transition of the alveoli from fluid-filled to air-filled results in   low compression of the pulm. alveolar capillaries with a decreased in PVR over first several hours  
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how long does it take PVR to decrease   2-3 days  
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decrease PVR is accompanied by   constriction of the ductus arteriosus 2ndary to oxygentation=increase in pulm. bld flow and an increase in L atrial pressure so foramen ovale functionally closes  
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when are DA and FO permanently closed   lst several mnths  
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with ventilation the first 5-10min what ocurs?   normal ventilatory vol. develop and normal TV  
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initial negative intrathoracic pressure generated   40-60 cm H2O  
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when is FRC near normal and bld gases stablized   by 10 to 20 min. of life  
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placenta oxygenates>   inferior vena cava, R atrium, foramen ovale,L atrium, LV, ascending aorta  
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bld returns upper body>   R side by SVC directed by crista dividends, RV, PA, 90% ductus arteriosus, descending aorta, and 10% PA, pulm. vascualr bed for growth of lungs and surfactant production  
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what cause the DA to open/close   decrease pO2, decrease pH, prostaglandins(placenta) close:increasepO2, pH, no prostaglandings  
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95% of babies have closed DA in __, and permanent in ___   48-72 hrs, 2-3wks  
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PPH   presistent pulm HTN  
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elevated PVR to the pt what venous bld is diverted to some degree through fetal channels   PPH  
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what can cause DA and FO to remain open   PPH  
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systemic aterial hypoxemia   PPH  
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primary causes: unknown 2ndary causes: PPH   meconium aspirat., sepsis, PNA, Resp. distress, CDH  
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what can be a sign of interuterine fetal hypoxia   meconium aspiration  
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what are the classification of PPH   1. PPHN with pulm. parenchymal disease, 2.PPHN with radioraphical normal lung, 3. PPHN with lung hypoplasia  
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what is the goal of PPH txment   PAO2 50-70 cmH2O PACO2 40-60 cmH2O  
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this is inhaled, selective pulm. vasodilation for txment for PPH   nitric oxide  
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ECMO   extracorporeal membrane oxygentation  
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risk of ECMO   bleeding, clot, stroke, infect, eq. fail, labor time, expensive  
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functional, physiologially closed, permanent anatomic closure:   12hrs, 2nd day, first 2 months  
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s/s of PDA   poor feeding, poor wt.gain, tachycardia, dyspnea, CHF  
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PDA is what kind of shunt   L to R, inceases pulm. bld flow=CHF  
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risk factor for PDA   endocarditis  
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PDA txment   indomethacin, ligation,  
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what is ductal depend. congential heart disease   needs PDA to survive 1)lesion with restricted pulm. bld flow(pulm. atresia or stenosis, tricuspid atresia) 2)mitral atresia, aortic atresia, preductal coarctation, interrupted aortic arch  
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txment for ductal depend. CHD   needs prostag. to keep PDA open  
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PFO in what % of adults   20-30  
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umbilical arterty and umbilical ligaments turn into   umbilicalligaments and superior vesicular artery to bladder  
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what are the newborn anatomial airway diffences   lg tougue, high glottis, narrow cricoid ring, slanting vocal cords, lg occiput  
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what type of breathers are neonatal   obligate nose  
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most common cause of airway obstur   tongue  
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narrowest portion for neonates   cricoid ring  
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what age does the narrowest portion change   <10  
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neonatal pulm. syst. differs by   high O2 consumption, high closing volumes, high ratio of MV to FRC, pliable ribs  
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O2 consumption adults 3ml/kg/min for infant   7-9ml/kg/min  
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lung volumes at with alveoli close, resulting in the shunting of bld by a closed alveolus   high closing volumes  
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high closing volumes of the neonate's lung are w/in the range of   normal tidal volumes  
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neonate have increased O2 consumption, what helps   increased alveolar ventilation  
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neonates have a high ration minute volume to   FRC  
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neonatal ratio of MV to FRC   5:1  
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5:1 ratio results with anesthesia   rapid induction and emergence from inhalational anesthesia  
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neonate has a higher % of body wt as   vessel rich groups  
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FRC in infants?   27-30 ml/kg  
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neonates FRC   23ml/kg  
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type 1 muscle   slow twitch, high oxidation for sustained muscle activity  
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diaphargm has type 1 till   8 mnths  
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fast twitch muscle   decreased oxidative, immed. but short activity  
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intercostal muscle achieve maturity   by 2 mnths  
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neonates has more CO than adults compared to body wt. b/c   increased O2 consumption  
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poor contractility results in relatively   fixed SV  
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what makes the heart stiffer and less contractile than adults   rich mitchondria and ER  
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neonates has decrease SVR 2ndary to   pristine vessels  
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MAP   35-40  
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babies have a fully developed parasympath. prone to   bradycardia  
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myocardial stimulation produces   limited increase in CO or contractility 2dary to undeveloped sympathetics  
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what is the major cause of bradycardia   hypoxia  
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in the sniffing position the head is ___ and the neck is ___   flexed;extended  
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place roll under shoulders for ages   <2 years of age  
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place roll under neck what ages   6-11  
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infant airway differs in five ways   larynx ↑ in the neck: preemieC3, term C3-4, adult C4-5 2)lg tongue 3)epiglot. short, stubby, angled away from tracheal axis 4)infant v/c have a ↓ attachment ant. than post. vs adults 5)narrowest part of the infant n young ped airway cricoid cartilage  
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Sodde's law of anesthesia   the laryngoscope light stays on until the blade is down the pt's throat  
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how long is the average NB trachea from vocal cords to carina   neonate 5cm adult 8-13cm  
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beyond 2 years formula for internal distance   age + 16/4  
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distance of insertion   age + 12/2  
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cuff tracheal tube   low press, high vol cuff generaly indicated for children 8-10yrs or older  
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ETT tube size formulas   premature 1-2-3-4 kg 7-8-9-10cm  
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down's syndrome   macroglosdsia, cervical spine stability, congenital subglottic stenosis, atlantoaxial subluxation20%, congenital heart disease(AV canal defects  
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micrognathia   may be the most common cause of a difficult airway in infancy  
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mandible develops from the first branchial arch   micrognathia  
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micrognathia abnormalities   hemifacial microsomia, bilateral 1st arch synd., treacher collins synd., pierre robin synd.  
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preauricular skin tags or abnormally developed external ears, may be used as a   marker for a potentially difficult intubation with micrognathia  
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natural hx of most of these airway problems is they   improve with age and growth  
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T or F the tongue is easily displace during direct laryngoscopy   T  
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management tips of micrognathia   laryngoscope is inserted on the extreme R side of the oral cavity (retromolar)  
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bilateral 1st arch syndrome   a very rare disease charact. by complete absence of the mandible and other structures derived from the 1st branchial arch.  
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underdeveloped cheek and jaw, down slanting eyes, ear deformitites,   treacher collins syndrome  
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goldenhar's synd.   rare congenital do of hemicariofacial and vertebral defects related to the abnormal development of the 1st and 2nd branchial arches  
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these infants not only have a difficult managed airway, congenital heart disease, pulm. and renal defects   goldenhar's syndrome  
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goldenhar's syndrome:difficult tracheal intub. may be due to a combination of   retrognathia, micrognathia, mandibular hypoplasia, palatal defects and vertebral anomalies  
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myocardiacl stimulation of a neonate produces a increases in CO and contractility   false;neonates lack sympath.  
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what contributes to formation of amniotic fluid   fetal urine  
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whar are the 4 major reasons for low RBF and GFR   low syst. arterial press., increased reanl vascualur resistance, decreased permeability of the glomerular cap., small size and # of glomeruli  
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meonate concentrates and produces unrine within   3-4 days  
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in 1 mnth kidneys mature to   70%  
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why considered obligate Na losers   tubular con't to reabsorb Na  
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neonate unrine Na   20-25meq/L  
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80% of fetal Hgb is   HgbF increased affinity for O2;  
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newborn Hgb levels falls for the first   6-8wks NB fluid should contain Na  
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4-2-1 Rule   (0-10kg)=4ml/kg/hr (11-20kg)=2ml/kg/hr (>20kg)=add 1ml/kg/hr  
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maintenance Na for infants is   3 to 5 meq/kg/day  
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how to calculate replace NPO   hourly maintenance X hours NPO (1/2 1st hr) (1/4 2nd hr) (1/4 3rd hr)  
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problems with temp regulation   lg SA, small mass to generate heart, poor insulation, inability to shiver  
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what is the major source of heat production in cold stressed neonates   catecholamine stimulation, nonshibering, thermogenesis by brown fat  
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brown fat forms in   26-30 wks gestation  
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brown fat produces heat by   fatty aci metabolism  
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name 5 ways to treat heat loss   radiant heat lamps, warming blankets, hats-wrapping limbs, warm-humidified gas, warmed IV fluids  
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increased bulirubin load comes from   poor hepatic conjugation  
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increased bilirubin comes from   75% from rbc destruction/UDP-glucuronyl/transferance reaches normal at age 3  
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what makes bilirubin water soluble for excretion   UDP-glucuronyl transferance  
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what is the COPD for neonates   bronchopulm. dysplasia  
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neonate unrine Na   20-25meq/L  
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80% of fetal Hgb is   HgbF increased affinity for O2;  
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newborn Hgb levels falls for the first   6-8wks NB fluid should contain Na  
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4-2-1 Rule   (0-10kg)=4ml/kg/hr (11-20kg)=2ml/kg/hr (>20kg)=add 1ml/kg/hr  
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maintenance Na for infants is   3 to 5 meq/kg/day  
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how to calculate replace NPO   hourly maintenance X hours NPO (1/2 1st hr) (1/4 2nd hr) (1/4 3rd hr)  
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problems with temp regulation   lg SA, small mass to generate heart, poor insulation, inability to shiver  
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what is the major source of heat production in cold stressed neonates   catecholamine stimulation, nonshibering, thermogenesis by brown fat  
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brown fat forms in   26-30 wks gestation  
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brown fat produces heat by   fatty aci metabolism  
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name 5 ways to treat heat loss   radiant heat lamps, warming blankets, hats-wrapping limbs, warm-humidified gas, warmed IV fluids  
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increased bulirubin load comes from   poor hepatic conjugation  
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increased bilirubin comes from   75% from rbc destruction/UDP-glucuronyl/transferance reaches normal at age 3  
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what makes bilirubin water soluble for excretion   UDP-glucuronyl transferance  
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what is the COPD for neonates   bronchopulm. dysplasia  
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txment for BPD   O2, bronchodilators, diuretics,ventilation  
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txment for NEC   IV hydration, ax, D/C feeds, surgical exploration, resection of damaged bowel  
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intraventricular hemorrhage occurs more in 500-750gm or 1000-1500gm infants   500-750gm (60-70%) (10-20%)  
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what type of infant is at risk for postop apnea and bradycardia   ex-preemies <60wks PCA full term at risk 44-46 wks tx with anticholinergic  
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