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Patho

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Question
Answer
Apex is formed __ by left ventricle and is the ___ ___ intercostal space   2/3, left, 5th  
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is the right atrium posterior of anterior?   anterior  
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___ is a thin projection at the top of the anterior surface   auricle  
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fossa ovalis is remnant of   foramen ovailis  
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air tends to collect at the __ and __ junction   SVC and RA  
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IVC, SVC, or Coronary sinus has the lowest Sv02   Coronary sinus 80% venous return from the coronary circulation  
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what are two ways the fossa ovalis can remain open or reopen?   RAP> LAP or positive pressure  
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which valves is the largest?   tricuspid  
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T or F do both ventricles perfuse through the entire cardiac cycle?   False; only the right ventricle  
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which valve is difficult to visualize on TEE   pulmonary valve  
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what causes a aortic dissection   the shearing effect of the ligamentum arteriosum which is attached to the aorta  
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which is the most common site to develop blood clots?   Left auricle  
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what allows for expansion of the L atrium to take in larger volume   left auricle  
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blood entry into the left artium is via   four pulmonary veins  
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the left ventricle is only perfused during?   Diastole  
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What can develop from a inferior MI?   Mitral regurg. secondary to papillary damage from ischemia  
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papillary muscles stablize?   chordae tendinea  
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Sv02 is highest when returning from the OR vs. open awakening? T or F   true  
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Tricuspid, Mitral, and Aortic valves have how many cusp?   T(3) M(2) A(3)  
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what is defined as critical stenosis   less than 1 cm2  
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this coronary artery is dominant in 20% of individuals   LCA  
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what is the sinus of valsalva   where the LCA arises from left aortic sinus  
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how is the LM branched out?   LM-LAD-D1,D2 LM-Lcirc.-OM1,OM2  
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is the R or L more susceptible to myocardial infraction?   Left  
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the RCA orignates from the   right aortic sinus  
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the R or L CA supplies the SA and AV nodes   RCA  
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if the RCA becomes occluded you will experience tachyarrythmias?   false; commomly causes bradycardias  
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coronary flow is balanced in __% of pts   30  
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ventricle size __ the risk for ischemia?   increase  
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L ventricle drains to the ____ found in the found in the right atrium?   coronary sinus  
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where are retrograde catheters placed?   coronary sinus  
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these drain deep muscle to RA and RV   thebesian veins  
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some direct drainage from the RV wall into __?   RA  
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where is the attachment points for the ductus venosum?   it turns into ligamentum venosum. Attached to the left branch of the portal vein within the pora hepatis of theliver.  
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what is know as the widow maker?   LMA  
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occlusion of the RCA: leads, area   II, III, aVF inferior wall  
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occlusion of the LAD: leads, area   V1-V2 anterior wall  
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occlusion of the circ: leads, area   V4,V4,V6 lateral wall  
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if you have lead changes in II,II,aVf you would expect what type of rhythm?   Bradycardia; RCA supplies the SA/AV node  
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if you see ST depression in leads V1-V2 you would expect what?   Anterior wall ischemia  
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ST elevation in leads V4,V5,V6   lateral wall injury  
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the presents of Q waves   infarct  
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this has a zero reference point, T-P segment is the reference line   the J point  
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ST depression may or may not have T wave inversion   ischemia  
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ST segment elevation, with or without loss of R wave   injury  
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what are some causes of inverted T waves   Conduction defects, Hypertrophy, Ischemia, Pericarditis, SAH, Subendocardial infarction. CHIPSS  
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causes of short QT   hypercalcemia  
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causes prolonged QT   ischemia, drugs, low: Ca, Mag, K  
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what makes cardiac muscle contraction take place?   Ca influx of Ca causes mov't of tropomyosin, allowing attachment of myosin head to the actin filament therefore allowing contraction  
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what relaxes muscle contraction?   ATP; binds to myosin and breaks hold  
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What terminates muscle contraction   re-uptake of Ca  
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if you have a pt with 2nd degree type II block why shouldn't you put them to sleep?   when placed on positive pressure it causes the RA to stretch and increase PVR which can turn into 3rd degree. caution in pt with SA node disease as well.  
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what part of the sarcomere moves during contraction?   Z-lines move as the myosin heads pull the actin  
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where is the CA located inside the cell?   sarcoplastmic reticulum in the mitochondria  
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CPP equation   ADP-LVEDP aortic diastolic pressure  
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which ventricle has the least compliance   left  
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where does sympathetic myocardial innervation take place   right stellate ganglion supplies the coronary sinus and AV node left stellate ganglion innervates the ventricle, distributed throughtout the entire heart  
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where does the parasympathetic myocardial innervation take place   primarily distributed in the atrium and specialized conduction system. SA and AV node. Vagus nerve  
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what is preload?   the sarcomere length just prior to contraction, importance of sarcoma length, pressure volume curves mimic this  
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how is preload measured   can't be measured except with rapid echo, indirectly as the LVEDV/LVEDP  
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what is preload   load that the muscle must do once contraction begins  
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what does afterload depend on   ventricular intracavity presure, wall thickness, chamber radius, geometry of the ventricle, vascular load, ventricular load  
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how is afterload measured   no measured but calculated  
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what is contractility   ability of the heart to contract with force  
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how is contractility assessed   echo, SV  
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what is normal SV?   60ml (65%EF) 3L/min at rest LVEDV 120-140  
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what causes decreases in slope 4   vagal stimulation, positive airway pressure, acute hyperkalemia, arrythmias  
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increases in slope 4   art.hypoemia, hypercarbia, catecholamines, sympat. drugs, acute hypokalemia, hyperthermia, HTN,  
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what part of the EKG is considered the health of the AV node   PR interval  
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what electrolyte is decreased by stress and bacteria   mag  
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which dysrhythmia a pacemaker is indicated   Second degree AV block type II  
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bifascicular block is also   a third degree block  
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esmolol should not be given to which pts   ST, PSVT with unknown cause, need to dx cause first  
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what is considered irregular, irregular   A.fib  
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this rhythm has a pathway of kent   WPW  
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what med shouldn't you give a WPW pt   verapamil  
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this access. pathway is inside the AV node, short PR interval   lown-ganong-levine syndrome  
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causes of PVCs   lt. anesthesia, vagal, art. hypoxemia, hypercarbia, MI, SNS activation, hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, drugs, mechanical irritation (caffeine, ETOH, dig tox,local tox, volatile)  
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how would you tx a pt that starts having lots of PVC's?   is pt receiving O2, cancel case, indication for list of possible causes, consider cause and treat.  
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how do you monitor ischemia   1)TEE, 2)PA cath,3)EKG  
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what causes prolonged QRS   hypertrophy, cardiac dilation, purkinje syst. block, cardiac injury  
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what cause changes in QRS ht/width(voltage)   increase voltage:hypertrophy decrease voltage:myopathies,tamponade,pleural effusions, COPD, pneumothorax, BBB  
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how do you dx a RBBB   (-)lead I, (+) lead aVF vector analysis or bunny ears in V1  
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how do you dx a LBBB   (+)lead I, (-) lead aVF vector analysis or bunny ears in lead I  
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why is it important to to dx R or L BBB   if placing a PA cath, if you have a LBBB you can knock out the R side and end up with complete block (SC pacer pads at bedside)  
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how do you treat neurogenic and spinal shock?   ABC's, IVF therapy, vasopressors, inotropes, corticosteroids, monitor for acidosis, evaluate level of injurt  
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how would you treat hypovolemic shock?   ABC's, evaluate and tx cause, intubate if in full shock, if not in full shock assess bld gases and ability to maintain airway, IVResuscitation, vasopressors, DON'T put in trendelenburg, A/L needed  
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what are the five important variables to ascertain shock?   CO, SVR, PAOP, CVP, SvO2  
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SMART stands for?   stabilize, monitor, assess, review, treat  
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how are hypovolemic and neurogenic shock different?   hypovolemic:hemorrhagic or nonhemorrhagic due to electrolyte loss #1 Diarrhea Neurogenic: spinal cord injury  
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what drugs should be avoided in WPW   Verapil, Ketamine, Pancuronium and others that increase HR  
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what organs get affected by HTN   HTN leads to MSOF (multisystem organ failure) Cardiac-CHF Renal-CRF Neurogenic-CVA Liver-why not?  
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what is the difference b/n primary and secondary HTN   Primary HTN: unknown(90% pts) Secondary HTN:Drugs, renal disease, pyelonephritis, glomerulonephriitis, diabetic nephropathy, vascular disease, coarchtation of the aorta, hyperadrenocorticism, primary aldosteronism, intracranial HTN, pheochromocytoma  
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what is malignant HTN   hypertensive crisis: diastolic>130mmHg results in damage to retinal vessels (papilledema),  
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what med should be avoided in HTN crisis   ACE Inhib  
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what is a key concept in shock?   perfusion  
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with shock when should you give bicarb? pH___   <7.20  
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what is a sign of flank bruishing?   retroperitoneal hemorrhage  
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where is LVEDP and LVEDV located on the press. vol. curve   look on the pressure-vol. curve LOL!  
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complications of thiazides diuretics   low:K,Mag,lithium clearance high:Ca, glucose, cholesterol, uricicemia dermatitis, alkalosis, photosensitivity  
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complications of K-sparing diuretics   hyperkalemia hyponatermia megablastic anemia dermatitis  
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compilations of clonidine   sedation, orthostatic HypoTN, bradycardia, impaired glucose tolerance, rebound HTN, dry mouth  
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complications of beta blockers   CHF, bradycardia, bronchospasm, sedation, rebound angina, parasthesias, impotence masking of hypoglycemia, raynauds phenomena  
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complications of ACE inhibitors   hyperkalemia, proteinuria, cough, fetal death, dermatitis, ANGIOEDEMA  
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complications of hydralazine   reflex tachycardia lupus like syndrome, fever  
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what is the final common pathway in shock   organ regional bld flow disturbances, lack of cellular oxygenation, leads to ATP depletion and eventually cell damage and death  
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what symptoms do you always get with shock   Neuro:mental status changes, miosis(overdose), mydriasis Cardiac:↑HR, ↓BP,↓contract., new murmurs, dysrhythmias,↑JVP(RHF), ↓JVP(hypoTN), disparate perip. pulses(aortic diss) Resp:↑RR,Pedema, hypoxia Renal:oliguria Skin:cool, clammy lactic acidosis, fever  
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What is the most important thing to remember when you manage anybody in shock?   ABC's  
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How do you differentiate b/n anaphlaxtic shock and neurogenic shock   you can't  
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how can you dx carogenic shock?   CI must be less than 2L/min/m2 PAOP must be greater than 17-20 mm Hg  
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what kind of shock is left ventricular MI?   cardiogenic shock  
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what is considered impedance to ventricular filling   pericardial tamponade  
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what is considered impedance to ventricular outflow   massive pulmonary embolism  
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what is the txment for anaphylaxis shock   vol. expansion, epi early, diphenhydramine, steroids  
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what is considered trauma without hypovolemia   Burns, crush injuries  
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what causes the fast Na channels to remain inactivated in pacemaker cells   the max negative voltage -60  
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what is Na intra, extra, and equilibrium potential   144, 7, +81  
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what is K intra, extra, and equilibrium potential   4, 151, -97  
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what is Cl intra, extra and euilibrium potential   114, 4, -90  
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during phase 2 of the cardiac action potential what occurs   plateau phase 2:1 ca influx 1 enters K efflux 2 leave  
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