| Question |
Answer |
| What is the rate-limiting factor for drug distribution? |
blood flow |
| What term is used to describe a drug which binds to a receptor and has an action similar to that of an endogenous chemical? |
agonist |
| What can drugs combine with in addition to receptors? |
enzymes, transport proteins, and nucleic acids |
| By what process can one drug increase the metabolism of both itself and other drugs? |
induction |
| What form of a drug crosses cell membranes easily? |
nonionized |
| What term is used to decribe the situation when the effect of two drugs given together is more intense or longer in duration than the sum of their individual actions? |
synergism |
| What term is used to describe the phemomenon in which elevating a dose of drug no longer improves the clinical effect for that drug? |
ceiling effect |
| What term is used to describe the strength by which a particular messenger binds to its receptor site? |
affinity |
| What is the study of the activity of drugs within the body known as? |
pharmacokinetics |
| What term is used to describe a severe response to a chemical that is characterized by life-threatening respiratory distress and shock? |
anaphylactic reaction |
| An all-inclusive effect on the whole body is also called a(n)______ effect. |
systemic |
| From what two organs are most drugs eliminated? |
kidney and liver |
| What happens during an oxidative metabolic reaction? |
The drug loses an electron and gains an oxygen atom. |
| How does grapefruit interact with certain drugs? |
It contains a compound that can inhibit intestinal cytochrome P-450, allowing more drug to be absorbed. |
| What is a classic example of a drug that is eliminated by a zero-order pharmacokinetic process? |
alcohol |
| Why are the intestines the major site of drug absorption after oral administration of drugs? |
They have a large surface area from which to absorb drugs. |
| If a drug has a half-life of 6 hours and a starting blood concentration of 100mg/kg, how long will it take until the concentration of the drug in the blood is 25mg/kg? |
12 hours |
| In what way are the capillaries in the central nervous system (CNS) different from other capillaries? |
They are enveloped by glial cells, which present additional barriers against water-soluble compounds. |
| What does bioavailability reflect? |
The fraction of an administered dose that is available to the target tissue. |
| What does the abbreviation ADME stand for? |
absorption, distribution, metabolism, elimination |
| What is the most serious allergic reaction to penicillins? |
anaphylaxis |
| What is the biggest challenge in developing a new antibiotic? |
killing the bacteria without harming the patient. |
| What bacterial pathway do sulfonamides interfere with? |
folic acid biosynthesis |
| Which of the following is not a mechanism by which bacteria develop antibiotic resistance? |
metabolism |
| Which of the following is an example of a gram-positive bacterium and infection it causes? |
staphylococcus resulting in toxic shock syndrome. |
| What are two general signs that an infection is bacterial in origin? |
white blood cell count above 12,000 and fever above 101 degrees Fahrenheit. |
| What is true of a bacteriostatic antibiotic? |
It inhibits the growth or multiplication of bacteria. |
| By which century were the organisms that cause cholera, syphilis, and leprosy isolated and identified? |
20th |
| Which of the following drugs is associated with an adverse effect known as Red Man's syndrome? |
vancomycin |
| Which statement regarding linezolis (Zyvox) is incorrect? |
It should be stored in clear glass containers. |
| What was the first true class of antibiotics? |
sulfonamides |
| What term is used to describe antibiotic treatment that is begun before the results of the organism culture have been returned? |
empirical |
| Which of the following classes of antibiotics inhibits bacterial protein synthesis by binding to ribosomes? |
tetracyclines |
| Which of the following drugs is classified as a macrolide? |
erythromycin |
| What are the bacteria that require oxygen to survive known as? |
aerobic |
| What is the most frequent form of bacterial resistance to antibiotics? |
destruction of the antibiotic by bacterial enzymes |
| What type of infections are aminoglycosides such as amikacin or kanamycin used to treat? |
sepsis |
| Why should the counting tray be swabbed with alcohol after dispensing an antibiotic? |
to prevent cross-contamination |
| When this drug is dispensed, a "Do not drink alcohol" sticker must be attached to the container. |
metronidazole |
| How do third-generation cephalosporins differ from earlier cephalosporins? |
improved activity against gram-negative bacteria |
| Why is it more difficult to develop antiviral drugs than it is to develop antibiotics? |
Because viruses utilize the host (patient) cell processes, killing them is often toxic to the patient. |
| Which of the following choices represents a class of antiretroviral drugs? |
nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI), non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTI), protease inhibitor (PI), and fusion inhibitor |
| What is common about the mechanism of action of antifungal drugs? |
Antifungals interfere with the synthesis of ergosterol, a building block for fungal cell membranes. |
| What is an example of a chronic viral infection? |
herpes |
| How can antibiotics worsen fungal infections? |
Antibiotics may kill the body's natural flora, which tend to keep fungi in check. |
| Which of the following antifungal drugs should be taken with a fatty meal and can be used safely in children? |
griseofulvin |
| What is a route by which most common viruses spread? |
direct contact, ingestion of contaminated food and water, ingalation of airborne particles, and exposure of contaminated body fluids and/or comtaminated equipment |
| What pair of viruses below are examples of latent viruses? |
herpes and HIV |
| What is a common target of fungal infections? |
nails |
| What is another name for an individual virus particle? |
virion |
| What is becoming a common dosing method for treating fungal nail infections? |
pulse dosing (one week per month) |
| Which of the following drugs is used to treat influenza A or influenza B? |
rimantadine, zanamivir, and oseltamivir |
| Which drug or drug class listed below is least likely to be used to treat side effects associated with amphotericin B? |
penicillin |
| Which of the antiviral drugs listed below is also effective in treating patients with parkinsonism? |
amantadine |
| Which of the following drugs acts by preventing the HIV virus from entering immune cells? |
enfuvirtide |
| What aspect of the fungal cell wall is affected by amphotericin B? |
permeability |
| What term is used to describe a specific molecule produced by B-lymphocyles with help from T helper cells and other mechanisms? |
immunoglobulin |
| Patients taking which of the following drugs should not drive at night? |
viroconazole |
| How are fungal and human cells similar? |
They both have a defined nucleus |
| Which of the following drugs is classified as a nucloside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI)? |
abacavir |
| Which of the following drugs is an example of a selective 5-HT receptor agonist? |
sumatriptan (Imitrex) |
| Which local anesthetic drug does not relax vascular smooth muscle? |
cocaine |
| Which of the following narcotics is a controlled substance? |
morphine, codeine, oxycodone, and meperidine |
| Which of the following drugs can be used to reverse the effects of a narcotic? |
naloxone (Narcan) |
| Which narcotic is the standard against which all other narcotics are measured or compared? |
morphine |
| What is not an aspect of balanced anesthesia? |
hypertension |
| What neurotransmitter is also known as adrenaline? |
epinephrine |
| What is the only neuromuscular blocker that acts via a depolarizing mechanism? |
succinylcholine (Quelicin) |
| What class of drugs can be used to reverse the effects of non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockers? |
anticholinesterases |
| Which of the following general anesthetics is administered intravenously? |
ketamine (Ketalar) |
| What class of drugs may be used to treat migraine headaches? |
triptans |
| Following injection with a local anesthetic, what sensation is affected first? |
pain perception |
| Which of the following drugs are the most used preoperative sedatives? |
benzodiazepines |
| What is the most inportant action of alpha-adrenergic receptors? |
vasoconstriction, raising blood pressure |
| What are the two divisions of the peripheral nervous system? |
afferent and efferent |
| Which drug listed below can be administered as a nasal spray to treat a migraine attack? |
sumatriptan (Imitrex), zolmitriptan (Zomig), dihydroergotamine (Migranal), and butorphanol (Stadol) |
| What did the Joint Commission on the Accreditation of Healthcare Organization (JCAHO) define, in 2001, as the "fifth" vital sign? |
pain |
| What term describes the physical and emotional reliance of patients on narcotics? |
dependence |
| What ate the primary opiate receptors associated with analgesia? |
mu, kappa, delta |
| Which of the following narcotics can be given intravenously as a preanesthetic medication and also administered as a patch or as a lozenge? |
fentanyl (Actiq) |
| Fluoxetine is an example of an antidepressant that appears to work through which of the following mechanisms? |
It inhibits the reuptake of serotonin into certain neurons in the brain |
| What drug used to treat alcohol addiction interferes with the metabolism of ethanol? |
disulfiram (Antabuse) |
| Which monoamine oxidase inhibitor is used to treat Parkinson's patients rather than depressed patients? |
selegiline (Eldepryl) |
| Tardive dyskinesia is associated with the long-term use of which psychiatric medication? |
antipsychotics |
| Which two neurotransmitters are believed to be most involved with schizophrenia and the drugs used to treat this disorder? |
dopamine and serotonin |
| Which or the following new antipsychotic drugs is classified today as being "atypical"? |
olanzapine (Zyprexa) |
| Which of the following is a symptom of alcohol withdrawal? |
nausea and vomiting, delirium tremens (DTs), hallucinations, and sweating |
| Which of the following drugs is not a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor? |
amitriptyline |
| Which class of antidepressants inhibits enzymes that metabolize catecholamines? |
MAOIs |
| Which of the following is an anticholinergic drug used to treat the Parkinson-like side effects of antipsychotic therapy? |
benztropine (Cogentin) |
| With which psychiatric disorder do patients suffer from alternating episodes of major depression and mild-to-severe agitation? |
bipolar mood disorder |
| Which drug used to treat depression is also used for smoking cessation? |
buproprion |
| Which of the following antianziety drugs is not a benzodiazepine? |
buspirone (Buspar) |
| Which of the following drugs used to treat insomnia is not a DEA scheduled controlled substance? |
diphenhydramine |
| What class of drugs is part of the standard of care for alcohol (ethanol) detoxification? |
benzodiazepines |
| What system can be adversely affected by lithium and how? |
gastrointestinal-nausea, vomiting, and anorexia; neuromuscular-tremors; weight- weight gain; renal- increased thirst and urination |
| Which of the following drugs is classified as a tricyclic antidepressant and has significant anticholinergic side effects? |
imipramine |
| During which stages of sleep does dreaming occur? |
stages III and IV |
| What term is used to describe anxiety for which there is no identifiable source than from within the patient? |
endogenous |
| What drug can be used as an alternative to lithium in the treatment of bipolar disorder, particularly with rapid cyclers? |
divalproex (Depakote) |
| Which of the following drugs has been shown to improve the cognitive function and social behavior of Alzheimer's patients and is sold over the counter? |
gingko |
| What dopamine precursor is used to treat Parkinson patients? |
levodopa (Doplar) |
| Which pair of anticonvulsants is most likely to interact with other drugs a patient may be taking? |
phenobarbital (Luminal) and phenytoin (Dilantin) |
| Which anticonvulsant does not appear to act via GABA receptors and is frequently used to treat neuropathic pain? |
gabapentin (Neurontin) |
| What is a characteristic pathologic feature in the midbrain of patients with Parkinson's disease? |
Lewy Bodies |
| What are the most common side effects of antiseizure medications? |
sedation and some degradation of cognitive process |
| Which of the following anticonvulsants is also used to treat manic episodes in bipolar mood disorders? |
valproic acid (Depakene) |
| What class of drugs may be used to diagnose and treat myasthenia gravis? |
acetylcholinesterase inhibitors |
| Which of the following anticonvulsants is correctly paired with the process it most likely affects? |
diazepam (Valium)--GABA |
| What combination drug contains levodopa plus an inhibitor of peripheral levodopa metabolism? |
Sinemet |
| What is the potential way in which antiepileptic medications can interact with each other and other drugs? |
They can alter the metabolism of other drugs |
| What term is used to describe continuous tonic-clonic seizures, lasting over 30 minutes, during which consciousness may not return? |
status epiepticus |
| The prevalence of Parkinson's disease is highest in what age group? |
above age 60 |
| Which drug used to treat ADD/ADHD is not a controlled substance? |
atomoxetine (Strattera) |
| Which drug listed below is used to treat patients with multiple sclerosis? |
interferon beta-1a (Avonex, Rebif), interferon beta-1b (Betaseron), mitoxantrone (Novantrone), and baclofen |
| Which anticonvulsant is the drug of choice for absence seizures? |
ethosuximide (Zarontin) |
| With what type of seizure may patients display blank stares, rotating eyes and rapid blinking; not have generalized convulsions; and have up to 100 occurrences a day? |
absence seizure |
| Which neurotranmitter is deficient in the nigrostriatal pathways of patients with Parkinson's disease? |
dopamine |
| Which of the following anticonvulsants is a DEA scheduled controlled substance? |
diazepam (Valium) |
| What two neurotransmitters in the brain appear to play the greatest role in seizures? |
GABA and glutamate |
| Which of the following medication is least likely to be used to treat or stop an acute asthma attack? |
cromolyn sodium |
| Which of the following antitussives is a DEA controlled substance? |
codeine |
| What is a potential symptom of nicotine withdrawal? |
anxiety, difficulty in concentrating, gastrointestinal diturbances, and increased appetite and weight gain |
| In what percent of asthma patients is there an allergic component? |
35-55% |
| Which of the following is a reversible syndrome in which breathing may be difficult? |
asthma |
| Which of the following is a potentially life-threatening condition in which the patient has difficulty breathing, has blue lips, and nail beds, may lose consciousness, and does not respond to normal management? |
status asthmaticus |
| Which repiratory medication listed below is an inhaled coricosteroid? |
fluticasone (Flovent) |
| With which device, used to administer asthma or COPD medication, does a stream of air flow past a liquid to create a fine mist for the patient to inhale? |
nebulizer |
| An asthma attack consists of how many phases or responses? |
2 |
| What is the least sedating OTC antihistamine and the only one approved by the FDA for cold symptoms? |
clemastine (Tavist Allergy) |
| Dornase alfa (Pulmozyme) may be used to treat what two lung diseases? |
bronchitis and cystic fibrosis |
| What are two signs or symptoms of nicotine excess? |
dizziness and diarrhea |
| Which of the following forms of nicotine replacement therapy is only available by prescription? |
nicotine nasal spray |
| Which of the following drugs is only indicated for long-term maintenance therapy of bronchospasms associated with emphysema and bronchitis? |
tiotropim (Spiriva) |
| Which of the following drugs may be used to treat tuberculosis? |
isoniazid (Laniazid, Nydrzid), rifampin (Rifadin. Rimactine), ciproflozacin (Cipro), and rifapentine (Priftin) |
| Which of the following asthma medications blocks parasympathetic acetylcholine receptors and should not be given to patients with known peanut allergies? |
ipratropium (Atrovent) |
| What is the most useful measure for assessing the severity of asthma on a regular basis? |
peak expiratory flow rate (PAOR) |
| Which of the following is an OTC expectorant available in caplet, capsule, liquid, syrup, tablet, and sustained-release forms? |
guaifesesin (Mucinex) |
| What is a common adverse effect of many (older) antihistamines (H-1 blockers)? |
anticholinergic responses, hyperactivity in some children, and sedation |
| What class of drugs used to treat hypertension, angina, cardiac arrhythmias, and migraine headaches is contraindicated in asthma patients? |
beta blockers |
| What drug is metabolized by colonic bacteria and is used to prevent and treat hepatic-induced encephalopathy? |
lactulose (Enulose) |
| Which medication below is used in preteens to treat diarrhea and acts by interfering with enzyme-dependent electron transfer in anaerobic energy metabolism? |
nitazoxanide (Alinia) |
| Which of the drugs listed below is a monoclonal antibody that binds to tumor necrosis factor (TNF) and is indicated for the treatment of Crohn's disease? |
infliximab (Remicade) |
| What three drugs given together are used to treat H. pyloric-induced peptic ulcers? |
bismuth subsalicylate-metronidazole-tetracycline (Helidac) |
| Which drug listed below forms a protective coat over an ulcer, helping it resist degradation by gastric acid, pepsin, and bile salts? |
sucralfate (Carafate) |
| Which drug listed below is an example of a phase II drug used to treat GERD? |
cimetidine (Tagamet), omeprazole (Prilosec), esomeprazole (Nexium), and famotidine (Pepcid) |
| Which drug below acts on 5-HT-4 receptors and is used to treat constipation-predominant irritable bowel syndrome? |
tegaserod (Zelnorm) |
| Which drug listed below acts to facilitate the admixture of fat and water to soften stool? |
docusate-senna (Senokot-S) |
| What is a potential problem associated with low-fiber diets? |
constipation |
| Which histamine-2 receptor blocker affects cytochrome P-450 and may interact with many other drugs? |
cimetidine (Tagamet) |
| If abdominal pain is caused by the release of an allergy or inflammation mediator, what mast cell stabilizer may be prescribed? |
cromolyn sodium (Gastrocrom) |
| What is another term for heartburn? |
gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) |
| By what criterion is dietary fiber characterized? |
fermentability, water-holding capacity, stool-bulking capacity, and solubility |
| For the treatment of hepatitis, which drug listed below is an interferon linked with a branched polyethylene glycol (PEG) molecule in order to allow once weekly dosing? |
peginterferon alfa-2a (Pegasys) |
| vWhich drug or drug combination is correctly paired with its DEA control schedule? |
diphonoxylate-atropine (Lomotil)--C-V |
| What receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ) are blocked by metoclopramide (Reglan)? |
dopamine |
| What is the drug of choice in treating malabsorption syndrome due to panceratic insufficiency? |
pancrelopase (Creon-10) |
| Which of the following drugs is used for chemotherapy-induced emesis and frequently causes headaches in patients treated with it? |
ondansetron (Zofran) |
| What is praziquantel (Biltricide) used to treat? |
intestinal parasites (tapeworms) |
| What GI disorder is characterized by inflammation of the large bowel with the patient experiencing diarrhea containing blood, mucus, and pus? |
ulcerative colitis |
mr. charles11
