ace study cards

Description:	random stuff for ace exam
Category:	Sports Medicine
Created by:	emjay on 2009-06-22

Question	Answer
Which lung is longer, wider, and has greater capacity, the right or left?	right
The amount of blood leaving the left ventricle with each beat of the heart	stroke volume
Which muscles are responsible for keeping the spine erect?	erector spinae
Microglia are part of the ___?	nervous system
A condition in which hemoglobin concentration in the blood is below a defined level, resulting in a reduced oxygen-carrying capacity of red blood cells	anemia
Nerves, ganglia, and receptors are part of the	peripheral nervous system
Fatty acid oxidation produces high amounts of ___	ATP
Components of cardiovascular system	heart, blood, blood vessels
Components of cardiorespiratory system	heart, lungs, blood vessels
Average resting heart rate of healthy adult in beats per minute	70-80
Your client wants to build muscle, how many seconds rest do you allow between sets?	30-60
220-age	maximum heart rate
When performing lunges, what is the main joint action?	hip extension
Begins when one foot touches the ground and ends when same foot touches the ground again.	gait
Point where loss of control of the center of gravity occurs.	limit of stability
The body's ability to stabilize joints during movement.	dynamic joint stabilization
Degenerative joint disease is another name for	osteoarthritis
How often should exercise equipment be inspected?	daily
Does using knee wraps and supports help reduce injury?	no
An electrolyte disturbance in the blood in which sodium concentration in the plasma is lower than normal	hyponatremia
Cause of hyponatremia	drinking too much water
Six food groups according to USDA pyramid	grains, milk, meat & beans, oils, fruits, vegetables
Women require ___ calories per day	2100
Decreased ability of the lungs to expand	restrictive lung disease
Losing weight during pregnancy can be toxic to the fetus (T/F)	true
Pectoralis major is active in shoulder __ and __.	flexion, adduction
PNF stretching is a combination of ___ and ___ stretching.	passive, isometric
Ability of skeleton to freely, easily, and fluidly float through the ranges of motion	functional flexibility
Uses only the tension of the agonists and synergists while the antagonists are being stretched	active flexibility
designed to improve muscle imbalances	corrective flexibility
Vitamin B12 and Folic Acid play a critical part of ___.	red cell production
Fat soluble vitamins	ADEK
Water soluble vitamins	BC
Required weekly calorie deficit to lose 1 lb.	3500
How many calories a day does the body require to get the necessary vitamins and minerals	1200
Cholesterol levels should be kept below __ mg/dl	200
Calories burned calculated from MET value	calories burned = MET value * body weight in kg
Which macronutrient can be metabolized without the presence of oxygen?	carbohydrates
The body uses omega-3 fatty acids primarily for the __.	central nervous system
RMR (resting metabolic rate) =	weight in kg *24
activity factors for RMR	highly active .5, moderately active .4, slightly active .3
total caloric expenditure =	RMR + (RMR * activity factor)
Number of essential amino acids	9
Which lever class is typical of most joints of the human body	class 3
The fulcrum lies between the effort and the load	class 1 lever
The fulcrum is at one end, the effort at the other end and the load lies between the effort and the fulcrum	class 2 lever
The fulcrum is at one end, the load at the other end and the effort lies between the load and the fulcrum	class 3 lever
What are the prime movers in shoulder extension?	deltoid and latissimus dorsi
What are the prime movers in shoulder flexion?	deltoid and pectoralis major
What are the prime movers in shoulder adduction?	latissimus dorsi, pectoralis major, teres major
What is the prime mover in shoulder abduction?	deltoids
What are the prime movers in hip flexion?	illiopsoas (iliacus, psoas major)
What are the prime movers in hip extension?	biceps femoris, gluteus maximus
What are the prime movers in hip abduction?	TFL, gluteus medius, gluteus minimus, piriformis
What are the prime movers in hip adduction?	Adductors (brevis, longus, magnus), pectineus, gracilis
The explanation for how muscles produce force (or, usually, shorten). Thick and thin filaments within the sarcomere slide past one another, shortening the entire length of the sarcomere.	sliding filament theory
A thick muscle on each side of the neck, the action of which assists in bending the head and neck forward and sideways.	sternocleidomastoid
Which puts more stress on the joint, closed or open chain exercises?	open
Activity in which an extremity can move in any direction, because it is not attached at the end. For example, if you raise one of your feet off the ground, you can move that leg in any direction or sequence of movements.	open-chain exercise
Activity that fixes the distal end of the extremity either to the ground or to a device that has a predetermined motion. When you keep your feet on the ground while you bend or straighten one joint, the other joints move in a predictable, set manner.	close-chain exercise
Basic unit of contraction in the muscle fiber	sarcomere
sensory receptors within the belly of a muscle, which primarily detect changes in the length of this muscle.	muscle spindle
Which contains more mitochondria, slow-twitch or fast-twitch muscle fibers?	slow-twitch
What are the four factors that limit flexibility?	1. elastic limits of ligaments and tendons crossing the joint 2. elasticity of muscle itself 3. bone and joint structure 4. the skin
What area of the body is innervated by the cervical plexus (C1-C4)?	head, neck, upper chest, shoulders
What area of the body is innervated by the brachial plexus (C5-T1)?	shoulders down to the fingertips
What area of the body is innervated by the lumbar plexus (L1-L4)?	abdomen, groin, genitalia, antero-lateral aspect of thigh
What area of the body is innervated by the sacral plexus (L5-S4)?	large posterior muscles of the thigh, lower leg, ankle, foot
What are the major characteristics of synovial joints?	Have a joint capsule or cavity between the bones that form them and a variety of movement can occur (ex: knee, elbow, hip).
What are the major characteristics of cartilaginous joints?	Have no joint cavity and are held together by cartilage. Little or no movement occurs (ex: where ribs connect to sternum, fibrocartilage b/w vertebrae).
What are the major characteristics of fibrous joints?	Have no joint capsule and are held tightly together by fibrous cartilage. Very little movement occurs (sutures b/w bones of skull, joint b/w distal tibia-fibula and radius-ulna)
What are the four components of a comprehensive exercise assessment?	1. cardiorespiratory efficiency 2. muscular strength and endurance 3. muscle and joint flexibility 4. body composition
Average resting heart rate for men is __ beats per minute.	70
Average resting heart rate for women is __ beats per minute.	75
During a submaximal exercise test, do not allow the exercising heart rate to exceed __ percent of heart rate reserve or maximal oxygen uptake.	85
To convert a 10 repetition-max weightload to a 1-repetition-max estimation, divide the weight by ___.	.75
Does not factor in the weight of the individual	absolute maximum oxygen uptake
Factors in the weight of the individual	relative maximum oxygen uptake
Which indicates a higher health risk, upper or lower body obesity?	upper
The greatest amount of force that muscles can produce in a single maximal effort.	muscular strength
The muscle's ability to exert a submaximal force either repeatedly or statically over time.	muscular endurance
Low-weight, high rep muscular endurance tests are most appropriate for whom?	less fit clients/clients that have health-related exercise-strength goals
What are three guidelines that ensure a client's heart rate doesn't exceed 150 to 155 bpm during a ross submaximal treadmill test?	1. don't go to stage II if HR exceeds 140 at stage 1 (this person is unfit) 2. stages IV and V should only be used with clients under age 50 3. Never go to the next stage if the HR exceeds 145 bpm
What are the skinfold sites for men?	chest, abdomen, thigh
What are the skinfold sites for women?	triceps, suprailium, thigh
What is the location of the chest skinfold?	diagonal skinfold taken midway on the anterior axillary line (crease of the underarm and the nipple)
What is the location of the abdomen skinfold?	vertical skinfold taken 1 inch lateral to the umbilicus
What is the location of the thigh skinfold?	vertical skinfold taken midway between the hip and knee joints on the front of the thigh
What is the location of the tricep skinfold?	vertical fold on the back of the upper arm taken halfway between the acromial (shoulder) and olecranon (elbow) processes
What is the location of the suprailium skinfold?	diagonal fold taken at, or just anterior to, the crest of the ilium
What are the advantages to the bench-press test?	dynamic movement that can be improved over time to show progress; easy to set up and administer
What are the disadvantages to the bench-press test?	uses fixed weight, which places lighter clients at a disadvantage
What are the advantages to the isometric strength test?	any strength test that involves movement will either underestimate or overestimate maximal force output due to internal friction; easy to administer
What are the advantages to the trunk flexion test?	easy to administer and repeat
What are the advantages of hydrostatic weighing?	most accurate for most clients, especially when coupled with a residual volume measurement
What are the disadvantages of hydrostatic weighing?	can be expensive and time consuming; lack of availability; may be inaccurate with clients uncomfortable with submersion in water
What are the disadvantages to the trunk flexion test?	may cause muscle strain if performed too vigorously or when the client is not properly warmed up
What are the disadvantages to the isometric strength test?	most workouts will focus on dynamic strength training so using this test for the purpose of establishing a baseline or to track progress may not be suitable
What are the implications of a shoulder adductor flexibility test where the arms do not lie flat?	client has shortness in pectoralis major, teres major, and latissimus dorsi area
What are the implications of a trunk flexion test in which a 28 yr old female has flexion of 15 inches with a trunk flexion evaluation of poor.	client has below average trunk flexibility with severe low back and hamstring inflexibility
What are the implications of a shoulder multi-rotational flexibility test where fingertips are not touching but are less than 2 inches apart?	client has fair rating of shoulder flexibility with lack of internal and external rotation
What are the implications of a hip flexor flexibility test where the right leg lifts up off the floor as the left leg reaches 80 degrees.	client has extremely tight hip flexors
What evaluation would you give to a client whose trunk is able to move forward on to the thighs and motion can occur at the hips and low back?	good trunk flexion
What evaluation would you give to a client where bending forward causes some restriction in the low back so that bending occurs more in the lumbar spine?	fair trunk flexion
What evaluation would you give to a client where bending forward results in lumbar spine remaining straight and the bending occurs in the upper area of the spine?	poor trunk flexion
What evaluation would you give to a client whose hips remain in contact with the floor when arms are fully extended in a trunk extension test?	good trunk extension
What evaluation would you give to a client whose hips rise from the floor up to two inches when arms are fully extended in a trunk extension test?	fair trunk extension
What evaluation would you give to a client whose hips rise from the floor two or more inches when arms are fully extended in a trunk extension test?	poor trunk extension
What evaluation would you give to a client whose fingers can touch in a shoulder flexibility test?	good shoulder flexibility
What evaluation would you give to a client whose fingers cant touch but are less than two inches apart in a shoulder flexibility test?	fair shoulder flexibility
What evaluation would you give to a client whose fingertips are more than two inches apart in a shoulder flexibility test?	poor shoulder flexibility
What are some ways to test upper body strength and endurance?	bench press and push ups
What are some ways to test abdominal strength and endurance?	half sit up test
What are some ways to test leg strength?	leg press
What are five purposes for fitness testing and evaluation?	1. establish a baseline to evaluate progress 2. establish goals and provide motivation 3. identify areas of health and injury risks 4. assist in developing an exercise program 5. to assess current fitness levels relative to age and sex
List the cardiovascular health benefits related to cardiorespiratory exercise.	1. Reduced blood pressure, total cholesterol, body fat stores, glucose-stimulated insulin secretion, clinical symptoms of anxiety/depression, and mortality in post myocar infar patients 2. increase HDL cholesterol, aerobic work capacity, heart function
List the adaptive physiologic responses related to cardiorespiratory exercise.	1 increase lactate threshold, heart vol, resting/max stroke vol, max cardiac output, max oxygen consumption, capillary density (blood flow to active muscles), total blood volume, max ventilation, lung diffusion capacity 2 decrease RHR, mortality, anxiety
Which is responsible for preventing muscle spasms or cramping, the warm up or cool down ?	cool down
Which is responsible for preventing musculoskeletal injury as a result of stretching, the warm up or cool down?	warm up
Permits gradual metabolic adaptation (eg oxygen consumption) which enhances cardiorepiratory performance (eg higher max cardiac output and oxygen uptake)	warm up
Prevents the premature onset of blood lactic acid accumulation and fatigue during higher level aerobic exercise	warm up
Causes a gradual increase in muscle temperature which decreases the work of contraction and reduces the likelihood of muscle injury	warm up
Facilitates neural transmission for motor unit recruitment	warm up
Improves coronary blood flow in early stages of the conditioning exercise, lessening the potential for myocardial ischemia	warm up
Allows a gradual redistribution of blood flow to active muscles	warm up
Increases the elasticity of connective tissue and other muscle components	warm up
Provides a screening mechanism for potential musculoskeletal or metabolic problems that may increase at higher intensities	warm up
Provides a psychological warm-up to higher levels of work ( ie, increases arousal and focus on exercise)	warm up
Prevents post-exercise venous blood pooling and too rapid a drop in blood pressure, thereby reducing the likelihood of post-exercise lightheadedness or fainting	cool down
Reduces the immediate post-exercise tendency for muscle spasm or cramping	cool down
Reduces the concentration of exercise hormones (ie, norepinephrine) that are at relatively high levels immediately after vigorous aerobic exercise. This reduction will lower the probability of post-exercise disturbances in cardiac rhythm.	cool down
What is the range for Borg's rating of perceived exertion (from not moving to maximum exertion)?	6-20
What is the formula for training heart rate?	maximal measured/predicted heart rate * 60 to 90 percent (desired % of max heart rate)
ACSM recommends an exercise intensity of __ to __ percentage of maximum heart rate, which approximates __ to __ percentage of heart rate reserve and maximum oxygen uptake.	60-90, 50-85
What is the advisable percentage of maximal oxygen uptake for beginners in the lower cardiorespiratory fitness levels?	50-60
Persons with very low fitness levels can benefit from training intensities as low as __ to __ percent of maximal oxygen uptake.	40-50
What is the appropriate maximal oxygen uptake range for those who are apparently healthy and in higher fitness classifications?	75-85
For any given percentage of maximum oxygen uptake, except for maximum exercise intensities, the % of maximum heart rate will be somewhat __.	higher
What is the karvonen formula?	target heart rate = (max HR - resting HR) * intensity + resting HR
Most clients should exercise at an intensity of __ to __ on the Borg scale	12-16
What training method would you use with a client who has an aerobic capacity of 1-3.9 METS (poor cardioresp fitness level)?	low level (2-3 METS) aerobic interval training
What training method would you use with a client who has an aerobic capacity of 4-6.9 METS (low cardioresp fitness level)?	aerobic interval training at 3-5 METS
What training method would you use with a client who has an aerobic capacity of 7-10.9 METS (average cardioresp fitness level)?	aerobic interval training at 6-8 METS; continuous training at 5-8 METS
What training method would you use with a client who has an aerobic capacity of 11-13.9 METS (good cardioresp fitness level)?	aerobic interval training at 9-12 METS; continuous training at 8-12 METS; aerobic composite training at 8-12 METS; moderate anaerobic interval training
What training method would you use with a client who has an aerobic capacity of 14+ METS (high cardioresp fitness level)	aerobic interval training at 10-13+ METS; continuous training at 9-13+ METS; aerobic composite training at 9-13+ METS; anaerobic or Fartlek training
What are the three stages of a cardiorespiratory progression plan?	1. initial conditioning stage 2. improvement conditioning stage 3. maintenance conditioning stage
A form of training similar to interval training, except the work-rest intervals are not systematically measured but are instead determined by how the participant feels	fartlek training
When comparing target heart-rate ranges using intensity by percentage of maximum heart rate and intensity by the Karvonen formula, which number is higher and why?	Karvonen is higher because it factors in resting heart rate
Using the revised Borg scale, the average exerciser should be between the numbers of __ and __.	4-6
Using the old Borg scale, a rating of 12 would indicate a heart rate of __ bpm.	120
Talk test advises clients to exercise to the point where you can still comfortably __ and if you are out of breath, __.	hold a conversation, reduce the intensity
The lower the initial level of fitness, the __ the rate of increase in aerobic capacity.	greater
Do relatively experienced swimmers generate a heart-rate response that is lower or higher for any effort compared with that of cyclists and runners?	lower
The longer the duration of training, the __ the rate of improvement in aerobic capacity up to a point. If exercise continues beyond that point, cardiovascular benefits may be __.	higher, reduced
Moderate submaximal exercise in healthy individuals does not appear to be significantly affected by a __ to __ percent increase in blood carbon monoxide.	10-15
How does age affect increases in aerobic capacity?	Older age isn't a detriment in itself to increasing aerobic capacity, but training generally shows smaller improvements in aerobic capacity due to lower exercise intensities in older individuals.
Tennis, racquetball, and handball are largely aerobic or anaerobic exercises for the beginning exerciser?	anaerobic
Aerobic dance exercisers generate a heart-rate response that is lower or higher for any effort compared with that of cyclists or runners?	higher
To find the __ place the first two fingers on the adam's apple and slide gently toward opposite side into groove.	carotid artery
To find the __ place the first two fingers to the outside edge of the eyebrow and slide fingers up and back into soft spot.	temporal artery
To find the __ place the first two fingers on the wrist in line with the thumb and slide along the wrist to the groove.	radial artery
To find the __ place two fingers below the left clavicle, between the anterior deltoid and pectoralis major	apical artery
What is the formula for cardiac output max?	HR max * SV max
What is the formula for oxygen extraction max?	VO2max/cardiac output
What is the formula for VO2max?	cardiac output max * oxygen extraction max
What is the formula for determining protein requirements for the average person?	weight in kg * .8
What is the formula for determining protein requirements for resistance/endurance athletes?	weight in kg * (1.2 to 1.7)
Desirable total cholesterol should be less than __ mg/DL	200
Desirable LDL cholesterol should be less than __ mg/DL	130
Borderline total cholesterol ranges from __ to __ mg/DL	200-240
Borderline LDL cholesterol ranges from __ to __ mg/DL	130-159
High total cholesterol is anything greater than __ mg/DL	240
High LDL cholesterol is anything greater than or equal to __ mg/DL	160
Low HDL cholesterol is considered anything under __ mg/DL	35
Normal systolic blood pressure is less than __ mm/Hg and normal diastolic blood pressure is less than __ mm/Hg.	130, 85
High-normal systolic blood pressure ranges from __ to __ mm/Hg and high-normal diastolic blood pressure ranges from __ to __ mm/Hg.	130-139, 85-89
Hypertensive systolic blood pressure is greater than __ mm/Hg and hypertensive diastolic blood pressure is greater than __ mm/Hg.	139, 89
What is the formula for calculating BMI?	weight in kg/height in m squared
What is considered a healthy BMI range?	19-24
What is considered an overweight BMI range?	25-29
What is considered an obese BMI range?	30-34
What is considered a seriously obese BMI range?	35+
What is the essential body fat range for men and women?	2-5%, 10-13%
What is the athletic body fat range for men and women?	6-13%, 14-20%
What is the fitness body fat range for men and women?	14-17%, 21-24%
What is the healthy body fat range for men and women?	18-24%, 25-31%
What is the obese body fat range for men and women?	25+%, 32+%
The amount of blood that flows from each ventricle in one minute.	cardiac output
Cardiac output is exactly the same from the right and left ventricles (T/F).	true
The amount of blood pumped from each ventricle each time the heart beats.	stroke volume
The percentage of total volume of blood that is pumped out of the left ventricle during systolic contraction of the heart.	ejection fraction
At rest the ejection fraction is only about __% but during work it can increase to __%.	50, 100
The amount of oxygen taken from hemoglobin and used in exercising muscle cells (two names).	oxygen extraction or arterio-venous oxygen difference
The point during high intensity exercise when the body can no longer meet its demand for oxygen and anaerobic metabolism predominates	anaerobic threshold
The total capacity to consume oxygen at a cellular level.	maximal oxygen consumption (VO2max)
Represents an individuals maximum aerobic capacity and depends on 1) delivery of oxygen to working muscle by the blood and 2) the ability to extract oxygen from blood at capillaries and use it in mitochondria	maximal oxygen consumption (VO2max)
The need for minimal equipment, low cost, and space and time efficiency are advantages to which type of equipment?	isometric
Blood pressure escalation, increases in strength only at specifically exercised positions in the movement range, training monotony, and lack of performance feedback are disadvantages to which type of equipment?	isometric
Accommodating resistance forces, speed regulation, detailed performance feedback, and reduced muscle soreness are advantages to which type of equipment?	isokinetic
The cost of equipment, inconsistent force regulation, and lack of eccentric muscle contraction are disadvantages to which type of equipment?	isokinetic
The low cost of equipment, similarity to most work and exercise activities, variety of movements, evidence of improvement, and easy accessibility are advantages to which type of equipment?	dynamic constant resistance
The inability to train through a full range of joint motion in some exercises and inconsistent matching of resistive forces throughout the exercise movements are disadvantages to which type of equipment?	dynamic constant resistance
The ability to train through a full range of joint motion on most exercises, fairly consistent matching of resistive forces throughout the exercise movements, and (in most cases) tangible evidence of improvement are advantages to which type of equipment?	dynamic variable resistance
The expense of equipment, limited number of training movements, and lack of accessibility are disadvantages to which type of equipment?	dynamic variable resistance
How does strength training benefit physical capacity?	it increases capacity to perform work
How does strength training benefit physical appearance?	it prevents loss of lean tissue that normally accompanies the aging process and reduces body fat stores
How does strength training benefit metabolic function?	it increases resting metabolic rate preventing excess energy storage as fat
How does strength training benefit risk of injury?	it reduces risk of injury and many degenerative diseases
What are some uncontrollable factors that affect strength performance?	gender, age, limb length, muscle length, tendon insertion and muscle type
People with relatively long muscles have __ potential for developing size and strength than people with relatively short muscles.	greater
Does a tendon insertion closer to the joint action create an advantage or disadvantage to effective force output?	disadvantage
There is an __ relationship between exercise resistance and exercise repetitions.	inverse
Higher-calorie use for the longer exercise session is an advantage of ___ .	multiple-set strength training
The lower time requirement for the shorter exercise session is an advantage of __.	single-set strength training
Muscle fibers that fatigue slowly and are better suited for aerobic activities.	type I (slow twitch)
Muscle fibers that fatigue quickly and are better suited for anaerobic activities.	type II (fast twitch)
The process of strength training results in microscopic tears to the ___ and ___.	muscle, connective tissue
The body usually requires __ to __ hours to fully recover so that strengthening can occur. If workouts are too close together the body will not have the chance to fully __ and build strength.	24, 48, recover
What type of training develops strength and stabilization so that force can be transferred efficiently between the upper and lower body?	core
What kind of training integrates balance and intrinsic muscular stability and uses closed chain exercises?	functional
What are some examples of low-intensity active rest?	calf raises, walking, light stretching, abdominal and low-back exercises
load * repetitions * sets =	volume
For the average client, the recommended movement speed is __ seconds per repetition.	4-5
A safe starting resistance for most clients is one that allows for completion of at least __ repetitions.	12-20
When training with light loading, the outcome is __. Training should be at __% 1RM with __ to __ reps, __to__ sets and __to__ seconds of rest.	muscular endurance, <70, 12-20, 1-3, 20-30
When training with moderate loading, the outcome is __. Training should be at __ to __% 1RM with __ to __ reps, __to__ sets and __to__ seconds of rest.	hypertrophy/strength, 70-80, 8-12, 1-6, 30-120
When training with heavy loading, the outcome is __. Training should be at __to__% 1RM with __ to __ reps, __to__ sets and __to__ minutes of rest.	max strength/power, 80-100, 1-8, 1-5+, 2-5
Using progressive increase in resistance over time, causing targeted muscles to fatigue in 30 to 90 secs, and challenging all major movements to which muscles contribute are the three general guidelines for what?	modifying strength training programs to create overload
What are the benefits of a flexibility training program?	increase: physical efficiency/performance, blood supply and nutrients to joint structures, neuromuscular coordination decrease: risk of injury, risk of low back pain, stress
During a __ stretch the contractile components of the muscles are relaxed.	passive
During a __ stretch the muscles are contracting through the range of motion.	active
Which type of flexibility does not emphasize movement?	static
Which type of flexibility involves speed, strength, and control?	dynamic
During __ tissues elongate but recover when the tension is removed.	elastic stretching
During __the deformation to the tissue remains after the tension is removed.	plastic stretching
What kind of stretching is primarily active and aimed at reducing muscle stiffness?	pre-exercise stretching
What kind of stretching is for permanent increases in flexibility?	post-exercise stretching
Which promotes greater plastic change, low-force long duration stretching or high-force, short duration stretching?	low-force long duration
Slow, gradual and controlled elongation through a full range of motion.	static stretching
High-force, short duration method that employs rapid, uncontrolled bouncing motions.	ballistic stretching
A method of promoting the response of neuromuscular mechanisms through the stimulation of proprioceptors in an attempt to gain more stretch in a muscle	PNF stretching
Stretch never held for more than two seconds. Stretch is then released, body segment returned to starting position, and the stretch is repeated for several more repetitions with each subsequent movement exceeding the resistance point by a few degrees.	active isolated stretching
The greatest increases in flexibility occur between the ages of __ and __.	7-12
Who is more flexible, females or males?	females
After adolescence, flexibility tends to __ with an acceleration in flexibility loss that begins at age __.	decline, 25
What are the seven factors that influence flexibility?	age, gender, joint structure, muscle tendon attachments, muscle cross-sectional area, body temperature, pregnancy
In pregnant women, changes in hormonal levels (namely relaxin) __ joint and tissue laxity, which may increase their susceptibility to injury.	increase
What are the four primary steps in designing a comprehensive exercise program	1. medical/health screening 2. physical fitness testing 3. selection of exercise mode 4. design of an exercise program for total fitness
The CDC/ACSM exercise lite guidelines are to help encourage __ individuals to improve their overall health by adding __ to __ activities to their weekly schedule.	sedentary, light, moderate
Typically lasts 4-6 weeks. Intensity, frequency, and duration are at the lower end of the training range. Increases are gradual.	initial conditioning stage
Typically lasts 8-20 weeks. Intensity, frequency, and duration are at the middle of the training range. Retesting fitness components every 3 months.	improvement conditioning stage
Usually begins 5 to 6 months after beginning an exercise program. Variety and convenience are the keys to keeping clients motivates	maintenance conditioning stage
Each year the number of Americans who suffer from a heart attack during or after exercise is ___.	75,000
The primary reason people give for not beginning an exercise program is __.	lack of time
Maintaining physical fitness is possible even when the training volume is decreased by __.	half
According to the 1996 US surgeon general's report and ACSM's exercise lite guidelines, the general population is urged " to accumulate __ minutes or more of moderate-intensity physical activity over the course of most days."	30
Which term BEST describes a muscle action in which the tension created by the muscle is variable throughout the range of motion?	isotonic
In men, a waist circumference of greater than ____ inches is considered to be a strong indicator of abdominal obesity.	40
If a woman weighs 110 lb, has a VO2 max of 40 mL/kg/min, and is exercising at a steady intensity of 70% of VO2 max for 20 minutes, how many calories are expended during exercise?	140
Which primary neural mechanism related to the stretch reflex causes a muscle to contract to protect itself in response to overstretching?	muscle spindle response
The maintenance conditioning stage of an exercise program usually begins _______.	6 months after the start of the exercise program.
When the goal of an exercise program is to increase cardiorespiratory endurance, what upper limit of VO2 Reserve should be used?	85%
A stroke is also referred to as ________.	cerebrovascular accident
According to current estimates, approximately what percentage of the American population does not engage in any leisure-time activity?	30
Studies have shown that drop-out rate for those beginning an exercise program is approximately ___ percent within six months.	50
What percentage of Americans is engaged in the recommended level of physical activity?	25
What is the estimated number of calories that an individual will burn by taking an additional 15,000 steps per week?	750
Which of the following is a personal factor that influences exercise adherence: social support, exercise experience, program convenience?	exercise experience
Which connective tissue functions to absorb shock?	muscle
For every minute that goes by without defibrillation, the victim's chance of survival decreases by _____ percent.	7-10
Comprised of the brain and spinal cord, it is completely enclosed in bone and is the control center (receives and integrates information and formulates appropriate responses)	central nervous system
The exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide b/w the atmosphere and the large capillaries of the lungs.	external respiration
The exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide b/w the blood and the cells of the body.	internal respiration
The utilization of oxygen and the production of carbon dioxide by the metabolic activity of the cell	cellular respiration
How many bones make up the axial skeleton?	80
How many bones make up the appendicular skeleton?	126
__ are living, such as red blood cells.	Formed elements
__ is composed of nonliving water and dissolved solutes.	plasma
Which system protects against disease, forms blood clots, and helps to regulate body temperature?	cardiovascular
Four training recommendations for a cardiovascular program are a frequency of __, intensity of __, duration of __, with ___ exercises.	at least 3X/week, 50-85% max VO2, at least 10-20 min/session, rhythmic large muscle movement
Walking has been shown to have high ___ because it is easy and convenient. It requires minimal __ and __ and can be done by people of all ages alone or in groups.	compliance, skill, equipment
The combination of __ and __ has been shown to be the most effective way to contribute to a weight management program. The combinations burns __ and stimulates __ rate.	aerobic endurance, weight training, calories, muscle/metabolic
Unsupported forward flexion, twisting at the waist with turned feet (esp when carrying a load), lifting both legs simultaneously while in prone/supine position, and rapid movements such as twisting, forward flexion, and hyperextending are all what?	movements that clients with lower-back pain should avoid
List the appropriate exercise intensity, duration, and frequency for a low-risk client with cardiovascular artery disease.	40-75% HRR, gradually increased to 20-30 minutes, 3-5 days/week
Inflammation of the bronchial tubes	bronchitis
Over-inflation of the alveoli	emphysema
Caused by the destruction of insulin producing cells, which occurs in childhood	type I diabetes
Usually occurs during adulthood in overweight individuals and is characterized by a decreased sensitivity to insulin (increasing numbers of children are being diagnosed)	type II diabetes
What is the difference between a cerebrovascular accident (cva) and myocardial infarction?	cva affects the arteries of the nervous system instead of the heart
Clients with __ can't jump, do high-impact/step aerobics, jog/run, do spinal flexion, crunches, rowing machines, trampolines, abduct or adduct the legs against resistance, move their legs sideways across their body, or pull on neck with hands behind head.	osteoporosis
When working with clients with __, extend the warm up and cool down periods and avoid head-forward positions in which the chin is lifted.	low-back pain
When working with clients with __, extend the warm up and cool down periods and use isometric strength training.	arthritis
When working with clients with __, extend the warm up and cool down periods.	osteoporosis
When working with clients with __, extend the warm up and cool down periods, avoid extreme environmental conditions (high/low temps), and initially avoid upper-body exercises.	asthma/bronchitis/emphysema
Appropriate dress, behavior, and demeanor, as well as respecting the client-trainer relationship and the client's privacy and confidentiality are examples of __.	professionalism
Placing effort and extra work into all aspects of the workout, staying current, and finding answers to client concerns and questions are examples of __.	dedication
Recognizing and understanding each client for his or her unique situation and giving and receiving feedback are examples of __.	sensitivity
Seeking advice of others, setting goals, time off and soliciting support from others are active steps to prevent __.	burnout
Being prepared for each session, starting and ending sessions on time, and arranging for substitutes when unable to attend are examples of __.	punctuality
In a standard exercise program, the percentage of participants likely to drop out by the first six months is __.	50 % or more
__ is the most often cited reason for discontinuing a vigorous exercise program.	Musculoskeletal injury
The first three to six months of exercise, when many of the difficulties associated with maintaining a fitness regimen normally occur, is called the initial __.	critical period
What are possible side effects that may accompany increased physical activity?	stiffness, minor soreness, muscle pain or fatigue
When a personal trainer does not recognize that there are more than just personal factors influencing a client's motivation to exercise and blames the client for their failure.	blaming the victim
A personal trainer should view motivation as a __ responsibility and recognize that it is dynamic and changes with each client and through different stages of the program.	joint
Feelings of accomplishment, stress reduction, better sleep, and circumference changes in arms/legs are all examples of __.	short term benefits of exercise
Emphasize __ when the client becomes discouraged about meeting long-term goals or the immediate discomfort of exercise doesn't seem to be paying off for them.	short term benefits of exercise
What are the two components of a complete behavioral contract?	specification of the behavior to be achieved and specification of the reinforcements that will reward the behavior
Effective feedback should be __, dependent on __, and should provide __.	specific, performance, corrective information
What are the four stages of the trainer-client relationship?	1. rapport 2. investigation 3. planning 4. action
What are the three fundamental stages of the basic teaching method?	1. assessment 2. teaching 3. evaluation
__ is the stage of successful sustained lifestyle modification, while __ is the opposite and generally refers to baseline behavior.	maintenance, relapse
Essential for thorough understanding and involves the gathering of information	assessment
An ongoing process throughout the program that allows revision and refinement, as well as periodic follow-up after program termination.	evaluation
Stimuli that precede the behavior and are sometimes referred to as cues or trigers	antecedents
Stimuli that follow the behavior and may be either positive or negative	consequence
During __ the individual is not intending to change soon (i.e. within six months)	precontemplation
Individuals who have decided to initiate an effort to change within a months time are in the __ stage.	preparation
The reinforcement of successive approximations until a desired goal is reached.	shaping
__ consists of seeing others serve as examples and prompts to behavior change.	observational learning
Average estimates of noncompliance for medical therapies range from __ to __.	30-35
__ is irrational or overly negative thinking that causes emotional distress.	cognitive quicksand
During the __ stage of change the client weighs the costs and benefits of lifestyle modification.	contemplation
__ are a means to break the connection between events or other stimuli and behavior.	stimulus control methods (or cue extinction)
The first step in the teaching process of behavior management is __.	goal setting
__ can take many forms, from generating objectives to keeping a log of efforts.	independent practice
The __ suggests that individuals adopt (or don't adopt) health behaviors based largely on their appraisal of their susceptibility to an illness combined with their perception of the probable severity of the consequences of having the illness	health behavior/belief model
A difficulty with the term __ is that it suggests that all the fault lies with the client and that it is reflective of poor motivation or laziness.	noncompliance
Injuries to __ heal with scar tissue known as collagen tissue.	muscle
__ repairs itself with exactly the same type of tissue when injured.	bone
__ does not contract to protect the are when injured.	ligament
Stopping the exercise session, removing client from hot environmental conditions, activating EMS, and giving fluids if conscious are all appropriate immediate care for __.	heat-related illness
Removing client from cold environment, warming them as quickly and gently as possible, and giving fluids if conscious are all appropriate immediate care for __.	hypothermia
For a client with __ you should concentrate on strengthening the peroneal muscles.	ankle sprain
For a client with __ you should minimize extreme shoulder abduction and external rotation.	shoulder dislocation
For a client with __ concentrate on eccentric strengthening of the legs.	runner's knee/jumper's knee
For a client with __ avoid overhead presses and increase abdominal strength and flexibility.	spinal injuries
Avoid continuing the activity that caused the injury	rest
Apply __ for 20-30 minutes and insulate the area	ice
Apply elastic bandages to the injured area	compression
Raise the injury to the height of the heart or higher	elevation
Increased temperature, redness, swelling, pain, and loss of function are the five signs of __.	inflammation
What are five items that should always be stocked in a first aid kit.	cpr microshield or pocket mask, stethoscope, sphygmomanometer, flashlight, sterile gauze
Protecting the spine if a fall has occurred, checking the head/face, looking at the skin, observing the chest for injury, checking vital signs, and asking the victim if they have abdominal pain are all possible steps during a __.	secondary assessment process
The aura, the tonic phase, the clonic phase and the postictal phase are the four stages of a __.	grand mal seizure
When an unusual sensation warns a person that a seizure is imminent (first phase of grand mal seizure).	aura
When the victim loses consciousness, holds his breath, and is rigid during a seizure	tonic phase
When the muscles alternate between relaxed and contracted in a grand mal seizure	clonic phase
When the victim is confused or comatose and the tonic/clonic activity ceases in a grand mal seizure.	postictal phase
__ are trained to administer basic medical care, while __ are trained to administer advanced care for life-threatening emergency needs.	emergency medical technicians (EMTs), paramedics
__ identifies any threats to life or limb, while __ occurs once life threatening needs of the victim have been addressed.	primary assessment, secondary assessment
__ is chest pain that doesn't cause permanent damage, while __ results in permanent damage to the myocardium.	angina, myocardial infarction
A __ fracture does not puncture the skin.	simple/closed
A __fracture results in part of the bone piercing through the skin, or occurs when a sharp object penetrates the skin and fractures the underlying bone.	compound/open
__ are tears of the ligaments, while __ can be microscopic or gross and are located at the muscle or tendon.	sprains, muscles strains
ABC stands for what?	airway, breathing, circulation
Why is it most important to make sure that oxygen can get into the lungs before circulating the blood when giving an unconscious victim care?	because the brain needs oxygen so circulating blood that doesn't contain oxygen is ineffective
Offer and acceptance with mutual agreement of terms, consideration (an exchange of valuable items, eg money for services), legality (acceptable form under the law), and ability of parties to enter contract w/ respect to legal age and mental capability are	four elements necessary for a legally binding contract
Instruction, supervision, facilities, equipment, contracts, and business structure are the main areas to evaluate when creating a __.	risk management protocol