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SE CDC1 part 1


In 1867, what state began conducting factory inspections? Massachusetts
What was probably the most significant step forward for the welfare of the individual worker? The Wisconsin Workman's Compensation Act of 1911
What industry brought about the practice of systems safety management? The US Space Industry
Which areas of the OSHA Act of 1970 were existing requirements of the Air Force Mishap Prevention Program before the act became law? Inspections, record keeping, and correction of deficiencies
What faction played a major role in the development and passage of OSHA? Organized labor
According to OSHA, who is ultimately responsible for safety and for employee violations? The employer (management)
From where were the first safety standards derived? Existing consensus standards of NFPA and ANSI
When can the Air Force use OSHA standards for guidance? When AF Publications, including AFOSH, do not provide adequate information on safety and health
What is the purpose of mishap prevention? To minimize loss of Air Force resources and to protect Air Force people from death, injuries, or illness by managing risks on and off-duty.
Mishap prevention applies to all areas except where? Areas where otherwise prescribed or specified in status-of-forces agreements (SOFA) or military-unique situations specifically exempted in Air Force instructions.
What is a basic principle to preventing mishaps? Applying sound standards
Define an Air Force mishap. An unplanned occurrence, or series of occurrences, that results in damage or injury, and meets Class A, B, C, or D mishap reporting criteria.
Who is responsible for the overall safety programs? AF/SE
What agency is the overall OPR for mishap prevention programs? AFSC
Who is responsible for the development of AFOSH standards supplements for unique operations for which safety and health guidance does not exist? MAJCOM safety staffs
Who chairs the quarterly Safety Council and semi-annual Environment, Safety, and Occupational Health Council? Base commanders
Who is responsible for actively implementing and using risk management principles at all levels within the unit? The unit commander
Who is responsible for providing assigned personnel pre-departure safety briefings? Supervisors
Who manages the mishap prevention program for the wing commander? GSM
What is normally the rank or grade of a ground safety manager? GS–11 or higher for civilians and E–7 or higher for enlisted
Explain what happens when a unit does not have an authorized safety position. 10. The commander must appoint collateral duty safety individuals to perform the safety functions
Unit safety representatives must be trained within how many days after appointment? 30 days
What percentage of mishaps is caused by human error? 80 to 90 percent
Name the two major categories of human factors. Attitudinal and physical
According to the text, what is attitude? Attitude refers to the way individuals respond to a given situation
What is the common thread connected to attitude? Predictability: People who generally dislike rules and regulations can be expected to dislike safety rules and regulations.
What does directly attacking a person with a negative attitude cause? It seldom brings a desirable change
Name two examples of attitudinal human factors. Any two of the following: unhealthy emotions, job or domestic pressures, distractions, job knowledge, and hurrying or feeling rushed
Name two physical factors that can contribute to a mishap. Any two of the following: fatigue, physical strength, reactions to over-the-counter and prescriptions medications, and the influence of alcohol and illegal drugs
How can engineers, functional managers, and supervisors in some cases mitigate the effects of human factors in the workplace? By considering personnel exposure and work processes when placing machinery and equipment in the workplace
According to the text, what does coordinating and maintaining liaison mean? To contact or communicate with interested agencies, groups, or organizations to assure harmonious action and unity of purpose in working toward a common goal.
Name three ways other branches of military service can aid your safety program. Through courtesy reports, special safety campaigns, and safety schools.
Why should you coordinate such tasks as inspections and mishap investigations with other safety disciplines? These people have knowledge that can help you answer some of those difficult questions you are bound to face.
Name some services that the National Safety Council offers. Consulting and training.
How does The Department of Labor promote the welfare of job seekers, wage earners, and retirees of the United States? By improving working conditions, expanding opportunities for training and profitable employment, protecting retirement and health care benefits, helping employers find workers, strengthening free collective bargaining, and tracking changes in employment
The Occupational Safety and Health Administration’s mission is to assure the safety and health of America’s workers by doing what? By setting and enforcing standards; providing training, outreach, and education; establishing partnerships; and encouraging continual improvement in workplace safety and health.
Who receives training from the OSHA Training Institute? Federal and state compliance officers, state consultants, the private sector personnel and federal personnel from agencies other than OSHA on a space available basis.
What program was initiated as an extension of the OSHA Training Institute? The OSHA Training Institute (OTI) Education Center program.
What are the duties of the Bureau of Labor Statistics? The principal fact-finding agency for the Federal Government- statistical resource to the Department of Labor (DOL).
Name two ways that law enforcement agencies may be able to help your mishap prevention program. Mishap investigations and traffic surveys and controls.
Name three reasons you may be limited in your development of training material. Any three of the following: availability of resources, costs, lack of materials, and availability of knowledge.
What are three avenues used by the wing safety office to educate base personnel on safety issues? Safety bulletins, safety newsletters and safety briefings.
What is the biggest and longest safety campaign throughout the year? 101 Critical Days of Summer.
Who is responsible for the career field policy and guidance? The AFCFM
What is a CFETP? comprehensive core training document that identifies life-cycle education and training requirements, training report resources, and minimum core task requirements for a specialty.
In what forum are career field training requirements determined, and who participates? U&TW; MAJCOM functional manager, an Air Force career field manager, SMEs, and AETC training personnel who determine career field training requirements.
Tasks that the AFCFM identify as minimum qualification requirements within an AFS or duty position. Core tasks
The total training process used to qualify airmen in their assigned specialty. Specialty training
Both upgrade (skill level award) and job qualification (position certification training). On-the-job training
An instructional package designed for use at the unit to qualify, or aid qualification, in a duty position or program, or on a piece of equipment. Qualification Training Package.
Courses taught by AETC Formal training
Mandatory training which leads to attainment of higher level of proficiency. Upgrade training
An Air Force publication that describes an Air Force specialty in terms of tasks and knowledge-Also identifies the training provided to achieve a 3, 5, or 7 skill level Specialty Training Standard
Formal courses that provide airman who are qualified in one or more positions of their AFS. Training is for selected career airmen at the advanced level of an AFS. Advanced training
Additional training exceeding requirements with emphasis on present or future duty assignments. Continuation training
Who develops, implements, and maintains the Safety CFETP? The AFCFM for Safety
List three responsibilities of the MFM in regard to training. Develop, implement, and manage career field training programs.
Who is responsible for ensuring that effective training programs are established for Air Force military and civilian personnel? Installation commander
List three responsibilities of the Squadron commander in regard to training. Establishes a well-rounded, comprehensive education and training program,Appoints an individual squadron training manager,Makes supervisors and trainers aware of available training programs
Who interviews newly assigned personnel within 30 days to determine training status? Unit training manager
Who is responsible for explaining education and training requirements outlined in appropriate directives to employees? The safety supervisor
Who initiates the AF IMT 2096 when trainees have completed all upgrade training requirements? The safety supervisor
Who is responsible for planning, conducting, and documenting training? Trainer
Who is responsible for providing third party evaluation of tasks identified by the AFCFM? Task certifier
What information is found in Part I of the CFETP? Information necessary for career field managers, training management, supervisors, and trainers to develop, manage, plan, and conduct an effective career field training program.
List the four areas of training. (1) Initial skills. (2) Upgrade. (3) Job proficiency/qualification. (4) Continuation.
An airman must receive what type of training to qualify in a specific duty position? Job proficiency/qualification training
What is listed in the STS? The most common tasks, knowledge, and technical references necessary for trainees to work at the 3, 5, and 7 skill levels. It also provides certification for on-the-job training.
When does an STS become a JQS? When it is placed in the AF IMT 623, On-the-Job Training Record.
Who identifies and coordinates on career field training requirements? MAJCOM representatives and AETC personnel.
What is the purpose of a CFETP? To provide career field managers, training managers, supervisors, trainers, and trainees with the information needed to plan and develop a formalized map to follow in managing their careers.
What are the mandatory 5-skill level upgrade requirements? An individual must complete the CDC 1S051, Safety Journeyman, finish all mandatory task qualification upgrade requirements, have a minimum of 15 months OJT, and meet the mandatory 5-skill level requirements identified in AFMAN 36–2108, Airman Classifica
What are the upgrade requirements for the Safety craftsman? Completion of training requirements identified in the 7-level column of the STS, completion of the craftsman resident course, and recommendation by the supervisor.
What is one of the best ways to improve productivity and esprit de corps? To have an effective training program.
List three results of a good training program. 1-Makes it easier for employees to do their jobs well and take on additional responsibilities 2-Broadens experience 3- Improves efficiency and morale.
How do supervisors use the AF IMT 1098? To document selected tasks requiring recurring training or evaluation.
What two sources are available to assist you in determining what safety courses you need? Section F, Continuing Professional Development, of the CFETP and AFI 91–202, The US Air Force Mishap Prevention Program.
Who compiles the career field’s projected training needs annually and formulates a schedule based on inputs? AFSC
Who is responsible for tracking all training throughout an individual’s safety career? MAJCOMs
What document is used to determine the number of personnel assigned to each wing safety office? AFMS 106A
What section of the AFMS 106A describes the duties of a wing safety office during normal peacetime operations? POD
The manpower standard does not apply to which bases and agencies? AFMC, AFSPC, USAFA, AFRC, ANG bases, wing safety offices not meeting the minimum man-hour applicability range depicted in the manpower table-bases that have undergone OMB Circular A–76 cost comparison study
What is the overall goal of risk management? To reduce the hazards and risk to personnel to an acceptable level while continuing to do the required missions successfully (maximum combat capability).
What is risk management? The process by which decision-makers reduce or offset risk.
What is the fundamental objective of risk management? To enhance mission effectiveness at all levels while preserving assets and safeguarding health and welfare.
Define ORM. A decision-making process to systematically evaluate possible courses of action, identify risks and benefits, and determine the best course of action for any given situation.
What is the cornerstone of the ORM program? Early education of people in risk management principles and tools.
Define risk controls. An action designed to reduce risk by lowering the probability of occurrence and/or decreasing the severity of an identified hazard.
Name the seven primary hazard identification tools. Operations analysis and the flow diagram,PHA,PHL,What if tool,Scenario process tool,Logic diagram,Change analysis,Cause and effect tool
What are the three levels of risk management? (1) Time-critical risk management. (2) Deliberate risk management. (3) Strategic risk management.
Who functions as an advisor to commanders, functional managers, and supervisors on the risk management process? The safety staff
What are the four basic principles of ORM? (1) Accept no unnecessary risk. (2) Make risk decisions at the appropriate level. (3) Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs. (4) Integrate ORM into Air Force Doctrine and Planning at all levels.
Which basic principle of ORM establishes clear accountability? Make risk decisions at the appropriate level.
What components make up the 5–M model? (1) Man, (2) machine, (3) media, (4) management and (5) mission.
Which component of the 5–M model concerns external environmental factors that may or may not be controlled? Media
List the six steps of the ORM process. (1) Identify the hazard, (2) assess the risk, (3) analyze risk control measures, (4) make control decisions, (5) implement risk control, and (6) supervise and review.
In the ORM process, upon what basis do decision makers choose control methods? Analysis of overall costs and benefits.
What is the foundation of the ORM process? Hazard identification.
In what three categories are hazards identified? (1) Mission degradation, (2) personal injury or death, and (3) property damage.
In what action of step 1 of the ORM process are the 5–Ms examined? Action 1: Mission/task analysis.
What tools are helpful when listing hazards? Preliminary hazard analysis, change analysis, scenario process tool, logic diagram and “what if” tool.
What is the second aspect of risk assessment? The ranking of risks into a priority order.
What are the best tools for assessing hazard severity? Cause and effect diagrams, scenarios, and “what if” analyses.
List the seven risk control options. Rejection,Avoidance, Delay, Transference, reading, Compensation, Reduction.
What three actions are included in Step 5, implement risk controls, of the ORM process? Make implementation clear, establish accountability, and provide support.
What are the three aspects of Step 6, supervise and review, of the ORM process? Monitoring the effectiveness of risk controls,determining the need for further assessment of either all or a portion of the operation, and capturing lessons-learned
When is a Job Safety Analysis done? When new equipment is installed, equipment is relocated, or new procedures are implemented in critical or hazardous operations.
Name the three steps of conducting a Job Safety Analysis. (1) Sequence the basic steps, (2) identify potential mishap causes or hazards, and recommend safe task procedures.
Define Operational Hazard Analysis. An analysis of the detailed procedures of an operation, and how a deviation from these procedures could lead to a hazard.
What can the information obtained from an Operation Hazard Analysis provide? Insight into how the operation, process, or equipment can be made safer and more reliable and feed into operating, maintenance, and emergency response procedures.
The primary responsibility for identifying workplace hazards, to include equipment and environmental situations that place workers, equipment, or facilities at risk, rests with whom? The individual.
Who may use the hazard reporting system to report a hazard? Any person military or civilian, assigned, attached, or under contract to the Air Force, Army, Navy, or Marines and Coast Guard personnel.
Who evaluates a hazard report to determine if it is valid? The safety representative (you).
What happens with a hazard report after it is validated? You assign it a RAC and a control number.
What is your responsibility to the originator of a hazard report? You must keep the originator informed as to the status of the report and corrective actions being taken.
After all abatement actions are completed, how many days do you have to notify the originator? 10 workdays
What should originators of a hazard report do if they are dissatisfied with the local action taken on their report? They should resubmit the report to the installation safety, fire prevention, or bioenvironmental engineering office.
What agency is the final and highest reviewing authority for hazard reports submitted by employees? DOL
Who is responsible for abatement action(s)? The functional manager in charge of the operation.
Explain the concept of “worst first” as it applies to hazard abatement. The hazards that you expect to present the greatest danger should be fixed first.
What factors determine which hazard abatement method is used to eliminate a hazard? Time and cost constraints.
Name the three hazard abatement measures used to eliminate hazards. (1) Planning and engineering, (2) procedural actions, and (3) personnel actions.
Define “interim control measures.” Temporary measures taken to reduce the degree of risk associated with an occupational hazard or deficiency pending completion of an abatement program.
Who determines what the hazard abatement control measure will be? The supervisor or functional manager with technical assistance from safety, fire prevention, or health officials.
What is an imminent danger situation? A condition or practice in a workplace that could reasonably be expected to cause death or severe physical harm immediately or before such danger could be eliminated through normal abatement procedures.
Name two qualities your recommendations for long-term control measures should have. They should be appropriate and feasible.
What are your two primary responsibilities concerning long-term control measures. Make abatement recommendations and ensure control measures and/or abatement actions are carried out.
Define mishap probability. An assessment of the likelihood that a hazard or deficiency will result in a mishap.
Who assigns risk assessment codes? Safety, fire prevention, and bioenvironmental engineering officials.
What two Air Force forms may be used to post notices of hazards? AF Form 1118, Notice of Hazard and AF Form 979, Danger Tag.
What is the abatement priority number system? A two-part code consisting of the RAC and the CEI.
Who determines the sources for funding hazard abatement projects? Budget personnel.
What are two types of inspection checklists you usually use? A preprinted standards checklist or a checklist of your own making.
What information is contained in AFOSH standards checklists? Identification of the activity, checklist items, and notations of reference material.
When would you write your own checklists? To fit local needs.
Name three sources of information you may use for writing checklists. The supervisor of an activity, quality assurance, or manufacturer’s technical manuals.
What is the principal purpose of a support agreement? To formally document recurring day-to-day support.
Name the four categories of support agreements. (1) Intraservice, (2) interservice, (3) intragovernmental, and (4) Air Force to other non-Federal activities.
When negotiating a support agreement, how do you decide which requirements will be included in the agreement? You negotiate the requirements based on the tenant’s needs and your ability to satisfy them.
When must the supplier initiate the triennial review? At least 120 days from the anniversary of the agreements’ effective date.
What action must a supplier take before ending or reducing a support agreement? Give the receiver a 180-day written notice.
Name the three parts that make up a contingency plan. (1) Table of contents, (2) the basic plan, and (3) annexes with their appendixes and tabs.
All safety standards and principles do not apply during contingency operations, why? Because the contingency plans and annexes are a basic description of how your unit will do business during a contingency operation.
What is an OPLAN? A written description of the combatant commander’s concept of operations to counter a perceived threat.
Who establishes the standard format for base level planning? MAJCOM.
Created by: SEG