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Review Quiz RT 83

Extremities QC X-ray tube construction

Orthoroentgenography, or radiographic measurement of long bones of an upper or lower extremity, requires which of the following accessories......Bell-Thompson scale, Bucky tray, Cannula? Bell-Thompson Scale & the Bucky tray
To demonstrate the entire circumference of the radial head, exposure(s) must be made with the......Epicondyles perpendicular to the cassette, Hand supinated as much as possible, Hand lateral and in internal rotation? All of them
Which projection of the foot will best demonstrate the longitudinal arch......Mediolateral, Lateromedial, Lateral weight-bearing, 30° medial oblique? Lateral weight bearing
The tarsals and metatarsals are arranged to form the.........Transverse arch, Longitudinal arch, Oblique arch? Transverse arch & Longitudinal arch
Which of the following articulates with the base of the fifth Metatarsal.............First cuneiform, Third cuneiform, Navicular, Cuboid? Cuboid
Which of the following projections will best demonstrate the tarsal navicular free of superimposition.....AP oblique, medial rotation, AP oblique, lateral rotation, Mediolateral, Lateral weight-bearing? AP Oblique, Medial rotation
The term varus refers to what? Turned inward
With the patient seated at the end of the x-ray table, elbow flexed 90°, CR directed 45° toward the shoulder to the elbow joint, which of the following structures will be demonstrated best....Radial head, Ulnar head, Coronoid process, Olecranon process? Radial Head
With which of the following does the trapezium articulate.....Fifth metacarpal, First metacarpal, Distal radius, Distal ulna? First Metacarpal
Which of the following bones participate(s) in the formation of the knee joint......Femur, Tibia, Patella? Femur & Tibia
In which projection of the foot are the sinus tarsi, cuboid, and tuberosity of the fifth metatarsal best demonstrated......Lateral oblique foot, Medial oblique foot, Lateral foot, Weight-bearing foot? Medial Oblique foot
Which of the following would be the best choice for a right-shoulder examination to rule out fracture......Internal and external rotation, AP and tangential, AP and AP axial, AP and scapular Y? AP & Scapular Y
The medial oblique projection of the elbow demonstrates the......Olecranon process within the olecranon fossa, Radial head free of superimposition, Coronoid process free of superimposition? Olecranon process in the Olecranon fossa & Coronoid process free of superimposition.
With patient seated at end of the x-ray table, elbow flexed 80 degrees, CR directed 45 degrees laterally from shoulder to elbow joint, which of the following will be demonstrated best...Radial head, Ulnar head, Coronoid process, Olecranon process? Coronoid process
The secondary center of ossification in long bones is the......Diaphysis, Epiphysis, Metaphysis, Apophysis? Epiphysis
Which of the following should be demonstrated in a true AP projection of the clavicle....Clavicular body, Acromioclavicular joint, Sternocostal joint? AC joint & Clavicular body
With the hand supinated in external rotation for AP shoulder, which tubercle is best demonstrated? Greater Tubercle
List the following in order from lateral to medial.......Trapezoid, Capitate, Hamate, Trapezium Trapezium, Trapezoid, Capitated, Hamate
Which of the following projections is most likely to demonstrate the carpal pisiform free of superimposition.....Radial flexion/deviation, Ulnar flexion/deviation, AP (medial) oblique, AP (lateral) oblique? AP Medial Oblique
All the following structures are associated with the posterior femur except......Popliteal surface, Intercondyloid fossa, intertrochanteric line, Linea aspera? Intertrochanteric line
Which of the following views would best demonstrate arthritic changes in the knees....AP recumbent, Lateral recumbent, AP erect, Medial oblique? AP erect
Which of the following tangential axial projections of patella is complete relaxation of quadriceps femoris required for accurate diagnosis....Supine flexion 45 degrees (Merchant), Prone flexion 90 degrees (Settegast), Prone flexion 55 degrees (Hughston)? Supine Flexion 45 degrees (Merchant)
How is the thickness of the tomographic section related to the tomographic angle? The greater the tomographic angle, the thinner the section.
A patient unable to extend his or her arm is seated at the end of the x-ray table, elbow flexed 90 degrees. The CR is directed 45 degrees medially. Which of the following structures will be demonstrated best....Radial head, Capitulum, Coronoid process Radial Head & Capitulum
That ossified portion of a long bone where cartilage has been replaced by bone is known as the.....Diaphysis, Epiphysis, Metaphysis, Apophysis Metaphysis
Are the tibial intercondylar eminences demonstrated on an AP tibia/fubula? Yes
Which of the following may be used to evaluate the glenohumeral joint......Scapular Y projection, Inferosuperior axial, Transthoracic lateral? All of them
Examples of synovial pivot articulations include the.....Atlantoaxial joint, Radioulnar joint, Temporomandibular joint? All of them
In which position of the shoulder is the greater tubercle seen superimposed on the humeral head? In AP internal rotation
Which of the following articulations participate in the formation of the elbow joint.....Between the humeral trochlea and the semilunar/trochlear notch, Between the capitulum and the radial head, Proximal radioulnar joint? All of them
Which of the following projections of the ankle would best demonstrate the distal tibiofibular joint.....Medial oblique 15° to 20°, Lateral oblique 15° to 20°, Medial oblique 45°, Lateral oblique 45° Medial oblique 45°
The coronoid process should be visualized in profile in which of the following positions......Scapular Y, AP scapula, Medial oblique elbow, Lateral oblique elbow? Medial oblique elbow
In the lateral projection of the ankle, the......Talotibial joint is visualized, Talofibular joint is visualized, Tibia and fibula are superimposed? Talotibial joint is visualized & Tibia & Fibula are superimposed.
Which of the following positions can sesamoid bones of foot be demonstrated to be free of superimposition with the metatarsals or phalanges...Dorsoplantar metatarsals, Tangential metatarsals, 30-degree medial oblique foot, 30-degree lateral oblique foot Tangential metatarsals/toes
Which of the following are components of a trimalleolar fracture....Fractured lateral malleolus, Fractured medial malleolus, Fractured posterior tibia? All of them
The tissue that occupies the central cavity within the shaft of a long bone in an adult is.....Red marrow, Yellow marrow, Cortical tissue, Cancellous tissue? Yellow marrow
Which of the following articulations participate(s) in formation of the ankle mortise.........Talotibial, Talocalcaneal, Talofibular? Talotibial & Talofibular joints
Which of the following will best demonstrate acromioclavicular separation......AP recumbent affected shoulder, AP recumbent both shoulders, AP erect affected shoulder, AP erect both shoulders? AP erect both shoulders
Stator's magnetism causes the rotor to turn what range of rpm's? 3200-3600 to 10000-12000 rpm's
What are the silver plated ball bearings used as between the shaft & rotor? Why is this? L.ubricant. If using liquid as a lubricant, it would form gas.
What is the shaft of the rotor made of? Why is this? Molybdenum. It has a high heat resistance.
Where is the timer circuit located? In between the autotransformer & step up transformer on the main circuit.
Why does the autotransformer have variable output? Varies the incoming line voltage to the appropriate level by varying the # of turns in the coil via the taps.
How does the falling load generator work? What is an advantage of a falling load generator? Disadvantages? Exposure starts at the highest mA station possible, once max heat load met, drops down to next. Can do shorter exposure times, since will be starting out in the highest mA. Cannot use breathing techniques. Consistent use of high mA shortens filament life.
How many diodes (rectifiers) does a 3 phase 6 pulse use? A 3 phase 12 pulse? 3 phase 6 pulse uses 6 diodes (rectifiers). 3 phase 12 pulse uses 12 diodes (rectifiers).
What is being checked in a QC test with a cylinder with a BB in center @ the top of the cylinder centered to the crosshairs? How often is this done? What is the acceptance limit? What is the limit for the SID w/tape measure? CR alignment. Semi annually. =/- 1% (In Ca it's =/- 2%). 2& for SID with tape measure.
Which size focal spot is the lead star pattern QC test for? The pinhole camera? Lead star pattern is for small focal spots (<3mm). Pinhole camera (>3mm).
What is used to measure for the QC test testing for exposure reproducibility? What is it measuring? When measuring several exposures are made in a row with the same technique (different mA different times = to same mAs), what QC test is performed first? It's measured with a dosimeter to measure if the exposures are all making the same density. The kVp & timer accuracy QC test is performed first.
What is the acceptance limit for the kVp & timer accuracy? +/- 5% for kVp & timer accuarcy.
Who performs the semi annual QC tests? Who does the annual testing? Who does the acceptance test? When is it done? QC X-ray tech does semi annual testing. The physicist does annual testing. The acceptance test is performed by the physicist & is done after installation, but before patient use.
Who does the x-ray tech report to for immediate service? To the manager.
What may form ghosting on CR images? Incomplete erasure.
If an artifact reappears on CR image if no visible artifact is found on the cassette, which area is faulty? If the artifact appears in different areas on CR images after checking for a visible artifact, what may the issue be? The area of the detector is faulty if the artifact appears in the same place. If the artifact appears in different areas, there may be an issue with the processor.
For DR systems, what can dust do to images? If there's persistent lack of density for CR images, where may the issue be? Dust in any area, may prevent light from being read, either preventing photoemission &/or photodetecting causing artifact, or non uniform density. Dust on the infrared beam for CR images.
How often should CR plates be erased? Plates should be erased every 48 hrs if they haven't been used (sooner if they're in the x-ray room).
What are the QC factors for the display monitor? Resolution, Luminance, Contrast uniformity & glare.
Created by: jamestkelley