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FDLE OBJ- FIRST AID

FDLE FIRST AID

QuestionAnswer
Bob Back of Book
ABC's Airway, breathing, ciruclation; assessment begins with ABCs
CPR Cardiopulmonary resucitation
Network of trained professionals linked to provide advanced, out-of-hospital care for victims of a suddn traumatic injury or illness EMS system
Emergency medical technicians who have advanced, specialized training that enables them to provide comprehensive care to patiens EMT
USDOT United States Department of Transportation
The relinquishing of a right or interest with the intention of never again claiming it Abandonment
Documents a patient's request to withhold specific medical care Advance directive
The failure of an officer to act or failure to act appropriately Breach of duty
DNR/DNRO Do Not Resuscitate or Do Not Resuscitate Order; documents the terminally or chronically ill patient's wish to refuse resuscitation
The duty to take some action to prevent harm to another and for the failure of which an officer may be liable dependig on the relationship of the parties and the circumstances Duty to act
Consent that is clearly and unmistakably stated Expressed consent
Protects physicians who render emergency care from civil suits; Florida's Good Samaritan Act also protects first aid providers Good Samaritan Act
HIPAA Protects the rights of patients and restricts the release of patient information
Consent inferred from conduct rather than from direct expression Implied consent
A person's agreement to allow something to happen, made with full knowledge of the risks involved and the alternatives Informed consent
A bracelet, necklace, or card that alerts medical personnel to a specific medical condition Medic alert
Failure to exercise the standard of care that a resonably prudent person would have exercised in a similar situation Negligence
AIDS Acquired Immune Deficienyc Syndrome; caused by HIV
Any infection spread from person to person throught the air; caused by breathing in microscopic, disease-bearing organisms called pathogens Airborne disease
BSI Controlling infection by separating patients from each other; includes two basis behaviors: the use of medical PPE and personal behaviors that reduce risk
CDC Center for Disease Control & Prevention
A highly infectious disease spread by person-to-person contact, generally through fecal contamination or oral ingestion Hepatitis A virus
A highly infectious disease spread through sexual contact, sharing contaminated needles (through intravenous drug use), or through blood transfusions Hepatitis B virus
The most common chronic bloodborne infection; primarily transmitted through direct contact with human blood, from sharing needles or drug paraphernalia, or from an infected mother delivering her baby Hepatitis C virus
Bloodborne viruse that atttacks the immune system and causes AIDS HIV
A type of bacteria that is highly contagious and resistant to certain antibiotics; causes a skin infection that is red, swollen, painful or warm to the touch; may have purulent drainage or appear to be a spider bite, pimple or boil MRSA- Methicillin-Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus
Items that protect individuals from harmful substances, infections, or other perople; includes eye protection, gloves, shields, and biohazard bags PPE- Personal Protective Equipment
Infection transmitted through sexual contact; among the most common infectious diseases STD- Sexually Transmitted Disease
A highly infectious airborne diseasae TB- Tuberculosis
Procedures designed to prevent transmission of HIV, hepatitis B virus, and other blood-borne pathogens Universal precautions
The muscles in the hear that constantly work to expand and contract Cardiac muscles
Located in the brain and spinal cord; components are the body's mainframe computer where all communication and control originate Central nervous system
Ingests and digests food and nutrients; includes the stomach, pancreas, liver, gallbladder, and small and large intestines Digestive system
Thighbone; the longest and strongest bone in the human body Femur
Smooth muscles that carry out many automatic body functions Involuntary muscles
Gives the body shape, protects intrernal organs, and provides body movement Muscular system
Controls voluntary and involuntary body activity, supports higher mental functions such as thought and emotion, allows the individual to be aware of and react to the environment, and keeps the rest of the body's systems working together Nervous system
Includes nerves that connect to the spinal cord and branch out to every other part of the body; serves as a two-way communication system Peripheral nervous system
Delivers oxygen to and removes carbon dioxide from the blood Respiratory system
The supporting framework for the body, giving it shape and protecting vital organs; attains mobility from the attached muscles and manufactures red blood cells Skeletal system
The protective covering for the inside of the body; provides a barrier against basteria and other harmful substances and organisms; acts as a communication organ; helps regulate body temperature Skin
Muscles used for deliberate acts, such as chewing, lifting and running Voluntary muscles
Method for identifying four levels of patient responsiveness AVPU- Alert Verbal Pain Unresponsiveness
Changes in circulation causing the lips, palms, and nail beds to turn blue Cyanosis
Injuries and sympthoms to look for during a physical assessment of a potentially injured person DOTS- Deformities Open injuries Tenderness Swelling
A patient's mental status due to illness or injury LOC- Level Of Consciousness
Method to help an officer acquire information useful in determining causes of injury or illness SAMPLE- Signs and Symptoms, Allergies, Medications, Past history, Last oral intake, Events
A relocation performed when a patient is in immediate danger or when the patient's location prevents providing care to him or her or another person Emergency move
Death as a result of a body position that interferes with one's ability to breathe Postitional asphyxia
A position where the patient is rolled over (preferably onto the left side) with kness slightly bent; helps maintain an open airway if the patien vomits and may prevent postional asphyxia Recovery position
ICS Incident Command System
An incident that involve more than one vicitm MCI- Multiple Casualty Incident
A method of triage that assesses a large number of victims rapidly using personnel with limited medical training START- Simple Triage And Rapid Treatment
A system of sorting and classifying of patients; determines order in which patients receive medical attention; assesses a large number of victims rapidly Triage
A failure of the heart and blood vessels (circulatory system) to maintain enough oxygen-rich blood flowing to the vital organs of the body Shock
An open wound caused by scraping, shearing away, or rubbing the outermost skin layer Abrasion
The gross removal of an appendage, complete or incomplete Amputation
Bright red blood spurting from a wound, indicating a severed or damaged artery Arterial bleeding
An injury characterized by a flap of skin, torn or cut, that may not be completely loosed from the body Avulsion
An obvious discoloration (black and blue) of the soft tissue at the injury site Bruising
Dark red blood oozing from a wound, indicating damaged capillaries Capillary bleeding
A closed injury that is discolored and painful at the injury site Contusion
An open wound where the organs protrude Evisceration
A closed injury that evidences as a discolored lump (see swelling) Hematoma
An open wound in soft tissue Laceration
The result of driving a sharp or blunt, pointed object into soft tissue Puncture wound
Soft tissue that is raised when blood or other body fluids pool beneath the skin at the injury site Swelling
Bleeding where dark red blood flows steadily from a wound, indicating a severed or damaged vein Venous bleedi
Airtight Occlusive
An open wound where organs protrude from the abdominal cavity Abdominal evisceration
Results from blunt trauma to the chest area; damages interanl organs and/or causes internal bleeding Closed chest injury
A closed chest injury that occurs when two or more adjacent ribs are fractured in two or more places and become free floating Flail chest
An injury that occurs when penetration opens the chest area Open chest injury
Type of open chest injury in which air and/or blood escapes into the are surrounding the lungs, creating a change in the pressure in the chest cavity Sucking chest injury
A fracture in which the skin at the injury site remains intact Closed fracture
An injury occurring when the end of a bone comes out of its socket at the joint Dislocation
A bone break Fracture
A fracture where the skin at the injury site is broken, and the bone may protrude through the skin Open fracture
When examing extremities for potentioal injuries, indicates what to check for: PMS- Pulse, Motor and Sensory function
Occurs when a burning chemical comes into contact with skin Chemical burn
Occurs when manmade or natural (lighting) electricity comes into contact with the skin and or internal organs to burn Electrical burn
A third-degree burn that damages all skin layers and affects muscles and nerves; causes skin to look waxy, white, or charred Full thickness burn
Occurs when a patient has a burn to any part of the airway Inhalation burn
Second-degree burn that damages the first two skin layers, which blister and feel very painful Partial thickness burn
First-degree burn that damages the first layer of skin; becimes red and feels very painful Superficial burn
A burn that occurs when an external heat source comes into contact with the skin Thermal burn
The bag of fluid surrounding the fetus Amniotic sac
The passage the fetus is pushed through during delivery Birth canal
The neck of the uterus; contains a mucus plug Cervix
The first stage of labor; begins with the initial contraction and continues until the fetus enters the birth canal Dilation
The second stage of labor; the fetus moves through the birth canal and is delivered Expulsion
The final phase of pregnancy; begins the birthing process Labor
The disk-shaped inner lining of the uterus; provides nourishment and oxygen to a fetus Placenta
The third stage of labor during which the placenta separates from the uterine wall and moves through the birth canal for delivery Placental
Connects the fetus and the mother; provides nourishment to the fetus Umbilical cord
The organ that holds the developing fetus Uterus
Results from the anrrowing of airway passages, causing breathing difficulties Asthma
Caused by oxygen deprivation to part of the heart, typically from a blocked blood vessel Heart attack
Damage to part of the brain due to the rupture or blockage of a blood vessel Stroke
A disease in which the body does not produce or properly use insulin Diabetes
The hormone needed to convert sugar, starches, and other food into energy needed for daily use Insulin
A localized injury from overexposure to cold Frostbite
Occurs when the body cannot recover from fluid loss Hyperthermia
The excessive cooling of the body's core temperature Hyprothermia
A severe allergic reaction in which air passages swell and restrict breathing; caused by insect bites or stings, pollen, medications, foods, chemicals, or other substances Anaphylaxis
A potentially poisonous byproduct of combustion CO- Carbon Monoxide
A state of extreme mental and physicological excitement due to extreme drug use; characterized by extreme agitation, hyperthermia, hostility, and exceptional strength and endurance without apparent fatigue; can lead to death Excited delirium
Conduct that falls below the legal standard established to protect others against unreasonable risk of harm, except for conduct that is intentionally, wantonly, or willfully disregardful of other’s rights Negligence
Transmission occurs primarily during sexual contact with an infected individual, when IV drug users share contaminated needles, from infected mother to unborn child & from contact with blood, certain body fluids, and tissue from an infected individual HIV
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EMS training described: Airway care, patient assess, CPR, bleeding control, stabilize injuries to spine/extremities, care for medical/trauma emergencies, limited amount of equip, assist other EMS, cannot administer medications First Aid Provider
EMS training described: Airway care, patient assess, CPR, bleeding control, stabilize injuries to spine/extremities, care for medical/trauma emergencies, limited amount of equip, assist other EMS, skills or procedures as local or state regulations permit First Responder
EMS training described: Performs all techniques of a 1st Aid provider & 1st responder, complex immobilization procedures, restrains patients, staffs and drives ambulance EMT-Basic
EMS training described: Performs all functions of previous 2 levels, administers medications, performs advanced techniques, including cardiac monitoring EMT-Paramedic
According to Advisory Leagl Opinion, the Good Samaritan Act does not apply to law enforcement officers within their jurisdiction, but does apply to Correctional officers unless persons reduce to their custody
If all of the following conditions are present then the following has occurred: Duty to act, Breach of standard of care, Causation, Damages Negligence
The following is a definition of: You were supposed to be there. Duty to act
The following is a definition of: What you did was wrong. Breach of standard of care
The following is a definition of: What you did was wrong. Causation
The following is a definition of: The patient suffered an injury; the injurey is additional to the orginial injury Damages
When you provide emergency care without the patient's consent you can face a: Battery charge is you touch a patient's body or clothing
There are 3 types of consent, they are: Express consent, implied consent, informed consent
Are the mentally ill competent to give expressed consent? No
Competen adults also have the right to withdraw consent after treatment begins, this also is true for patients who were unconscious when treatment began and then: Regains consciousness and mental competence and ask you to stop
A person involved in a traumatic incident such as an auto accident may be: Emotionally, intellectually and/or physically impaired
Do not have the authorization to honor DNR Order or an advance directive: Criminal justice first aid provider
You make have a patient who is an organ donor. The patient should have one of the following: Legal documentation, signed donor card, organ donor designation on his or her driver's license
You may respond to a calll that could be a crime scene and a medical emergency, examples are: Suicide, homicide, drug overdose, domestic dispute, abuse, a hit-and-run, robbery, or any scene involving battery, gunfire, or a weapon
"Characterized by assurance", "full of conviction" and "characteristic or customary mode of acting, custom...a mode or procedure or way of acting" describes: Confident manner
When dealing with a hysterical patient, family member or bystander you should: Redirect the converstaion to divert his or her attention
When communicating with younger children you should: Get down on their eye level and move slowly
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What are the following warning signs of: inability to concentrate, difficulty sleepin/nightmares, anxiety, inability to make decisions, guilt, changes in appetite, changes in sexual desire, isolation, changes in work or recreation habits Stress
Possible steps an officer may take to help reduce/ alleviate stress are: Breathing- take several long deep breaths focus on counting each breath, Thought patterns- Consciously change your thought patterns, think "This too shall pass"
Lifestyle choices that individuals can make that help them cope with, reduce or alleviate stress are: Nutrition, Excerise and Relaxation
Maintaining regular meal schedules and having healthy food available improves eating habits, healthly well-balanced diet. Falls under which Lifestyle Choice Nutrition
Benefit is to release pent-up emotions and should be incorporated into daily schedules. Falls under which Lifestyle Choice Exercise
Takes many forms such as: meditation, religion, sports, hobbies or other activites, and should also allow for adequate sleep and rest. Falls under which Lifestyle Choice Relation
One of the most intense types of stress occurs when a first aid provider is involoved with: Dying patient or the death of a patient
One well-recognized model describes people's reactions to death and dying as a 5 stage process, the stages are: 1. Denial 2. Anger 3. Bargaining 4. Depression 5. Acceptance
Bloodborne or airborne pathogens found in human bodily fluids that you encounter while you perform your duties are: Pathogenic microorganisms
When adhereing to the colloquialsim: "If it is wet, sticky, and not yours:..." Do not touch it
Always wear gloves if you expect to have physical contact with a patien or prisoner if they are bleeding or have open sores, rashes, blisters, burns or other broken skin conditions and if you have: Open cuts, sores, rashes, blisters, burns or other broken skin conditions on your hands
If your hands are visibly dirty or soiled with blood or other fluids you should: Wash them with plain or antimicrobial soap and water. Rub hands vigorously for at least 15 seconds
There are two different types of masks, they are and are used for: Filter and CPR mask. Filter mask can provide protection against airborne diseases. CPR mask are barrier devices with one-way valves, designed to prevent the patient's saliva or vomitus from entering caregiver's mouth
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MRSA or staph infections occur most frequently among persons in: Hospitals, healthcare facitities or detention facilities
Hepatitis A incubation period ranges from: 2 weeks to 2 months
Hepatitis B incubation period ranges from: Dried body fluids for an undetermined time
Hepatitis C incubation period ranges from: Varies from person to person
The Rossy Parker section follows from here: Short on time
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The roles and responsibilities of the criminal justice first aid provider differ from other professional within the EMS system by _________. Perform all techniques of 1st aid provider &1st responder, perform complex immobilization procedures, restrain patients, staff & drive ambulance, perform all functions of previous two levels, perform advanced techniques, including cardiac monitoring
Your primary concern as a first aid provider is the _________. Patient
What is the number one thing when an officer arrives at the scene? Protect your safety, the safety of the patient and the safety of bystander
In the ________ and ethical issues, the public has come to expect and law requires you to be competent criminal justice officers whose behavior is always above reproach Legal
“a duty to take some action to prevent harm to another and for the failure of which one may be liable depending on the relationship of the parties and the circumstances.” This is the definition of ________. Duty to Act
As a law enforcement officer, you have a duty to act _______ within your jurisdictional boundaries 24/7
________ occurs when you either fail to act or act inappropriately. Breach of duty
“In the law of negligence, the degree of care that a reasonable person should exercise; under the law of negligence, the conduct demanded of a person in a given situation." is: Standard or Scope of Care
“Typically, this involves a person’s giving attention both to possible dangers, mistakes, and pitfalls and to ways of ensuring that these risks do not materialize.” Standard or Scope of Care
_________ is care that you are expected to provide to the same patient under the same conditions as would any criminal justice first aid provider who received the same level of training. Standard or Scope of Care
Providing CPR is within your scope of care as a criminal justice officer while performing open-heart surgery is not is an example of ________. Standard or Scope of Care
The _________ protects a civilian first aid provider from liability for medical care performed in good faith or medical care similar to the expected of another first aid provider with equal training. Good Samaritan Act
The Good Samaritan Act does NOT apply to which of the following personnel ________. Law enforcement officers
“The relinquishing of a right or interest with the intention of never again claiming it.” This is the definition of _______. Abandonment
An officer leaves a patient before properly relieved by a trained professional on the side of the road is called ________. Abandonment
"The failure to exercise the standard of care that a reasonably prudent person would have exercised in a similar situation" Negligence
"Any conduct that falls below the legal standard established to protect others against unreasonable risk of harm, except for conduct that is intentionally, wantonly, or willfully disregardful of other’s rights.” Negligence
Negligence occurs these conditions are present: _______. Duty to act, Breach of standard of care, Causation, Damages
Duty to act refers to _______. You were supposed to be there.
Breach of standard of care refers to _______. What you did was wrong
Causation refers to ______. What you did caused the injury
Damages refers to ______. The patient suffered an injury; the injury is additional to the original injury.
“The use of force against another resulting in harmful or offensive contact; an intentional and offensive touching of another without lawful justification— also termed tortuous battery” Battery
________ is unlawful physical contact. Battery
“Agreement, approval, or permission as to some act of purpose, especially given voluntarily by a competent person” (Garner, 1999). This is the definition of _______. Consent
_______ is/are the type(s) of consent in reference to first aid. Expressed,Implied,Informed
Who can refuse medical care at the scene? The patient must be _____ to refuse medical care Competent adult, understand the police officer question, understand the implications of decisions made about medical care
Who cannot refuse medical care at the scene? The patient must be _____. Under the influence of alcohol or drugs, meet the criteria for a Marchman Act, altered mental state, meet the criteria of a Baker Act, seriously ill, has an injury that affects judgment, mentally ill, mentally challenged
_________is “Consent that is clearly and unmistakably stated.” Expressed consent
_______ is affirmative consent, such as verbal or physical assertion of the affirmative Expressed consent
When persons expressly invited officers into a hotel room where they found contraband is an example of _______. Expressed consent
_______ is “Consent inferred from one’s conduct rather than from one’s direct expression” (Garner, 1999). Implied consent
________ “may be found by circumstantial evidence suggesting implicit consent Implied consent
A police officer makes assumptions of _______. Implied consent
A police officer assumes that the unresponsive patient is at risk of death, disability, or deterioration of condition and/or would agree to care if able to consent. This is an example of _______. Implied consent
_______ may also apply to conscious patients who do not stop you from providing treatment, refuse care, and then become unresponsive and/or are not competent to refuse care. Implied consent
_______is “A person’s agreement to allow something to happen made with full knowledge of the risks involved and the alternatives.” Informed Consent
_________ documents the terminally or chronically ill patient's wish to refuse resuscitation Do Not Resuscitate Order (DNRO)
Licensed medical professionals, EMTs, or paramedics can ______. a) honor a DNR Order or advanced directive b) can perform CPR c) can assist a patient d) cannot honor a DNR Order or advanced directive Honor a DNR Order or advanced directive
Medic Alert is an identification _______ that a person carries in his or her wallet that alerts about a specific medical condition such as an allergy. Bracelet, necklace, card
You may respond to a call that could be both a crime scene and a medical emergency.Examples may include any scene involving a ________ Suicide, Homicide, drug overdose, domestic dispute, abuse, a hit-and-run, robbery, any scene involving battery/gunfire/or a weapon
As always, your first concern is your personal safety. If you believe the perpetrator remains in the area, ensure scene safety before caring for the patient. When the scene is safe, the patient becomes your ______. Priority
Remember that any item on the scene may be _______. Evidence
When will you move a patient at the scene? Move the patient only if he or she is in imminent danger and advanced emergency care is not nearby
What should be done with the clothing of a rape victim? Preserve the patient’s clothing
For a person who has been ________, do not let them bath or shower. sexually battered
You may need to help or render first aid care to patients who have special needs or require special considerations. These patients include the ________. Visually impaired, hearing impaired, elderly, chronically ill, developmentally disabled, those who speak a language foreign to you, those who behave disruptively
To provide effective emergency first aid to patients who have special needs, be aware of their particular _______. disabilities and special needs
What is the officer's responsibility to the death and dying? Recognize emotional needs as well as injury or illness
Identify the warning signs of stress _________. Inability to concentrate, difficulty sleeping/nightmares, anxiety, inability to make decisions, guilt, changes in appetite, changes in sexual desire, isolation, changes in work or recreation habits
One of the most intense types of _______ occurs when a first aid provider is involved with a dying patient or the death of a patient. Stress
One well-recognized model describes people’s reactions to death and dying as a _____ stage process Five
_________ are the model that describes people’s reactions to death and dying state process Denial, Anger, Bargaining, Depression, Acceptance
_______ is a feeling that the death is not happening or did not happen; refusing to accept reality Denial
_______ is acting out, perhaps in ways that endangers others Anger
_______ is trying to make a deal to postpone the inevitable Bargaining
________ is a feeling and acting unusually silent, distant, and withdrawn Depression
________ unhappy, but resigned to reality Acceptance
Criminal justice officers encounter injured people who can also be _______. a) sick or carriers of disease b) mental disable c) under the influence of drugs d) hysterical Sick or carriers of disease
Certain job-related tasks that involve physical contact, such as ______, are more likely to expose you to body substances that contain bloodborne pathogens than others. CPR, first aid care, property searches and confiscation, frisks and custodial searches, any response to resistance, crime scene investigation, and/or prisoner transport
Regard body fluids that you encounter while you perform your duties as contaminated with bloodborne pathogens that can ______ you. a) disease b) stress c) injure d) infect Infect
Bloodborne or airborne pathogens are pathogenic microorganisms in human body ______. a) fluids b) liquids c) bloods d) secretions Fluids
Bloodborne or airborne pathogens can infect and cause ________ in persons exposed to blood or body fluids containing the pathogens. a) disease b) stress c) injure d) infect Disease
The Center for Disease Control & Prevention (CDC) defines universal precautions as a set of procedures designed to prevent transmission of human immunodeficiency virus HIV, hepatitis B virus, and other ________ to first aid or health care provider Bloodborne pathogens
Body Substance Isolation (BSI) includes two basic behaviors: ________. Use of medical personal protection equipment and personal behaviors that reduce risk
What serves as a barrier against infection? Personal Protective Equipments (PPEs)
Medical Personal Protection Equipment (PPE) includes _______. Eye protection, gloves, protective clothing (i.e., gown and/or coveralls, sleeves, shoe covers), masks or shields, biohazard bags
_______ can provide protection against airborne diseases Filter masks
______ are barrier devices with one way valves used when performing ventilations. CPR masks
The procedures you use to handle biomedical or biohazardous wastes must comply with federal _________ requirements for identifying and segregating blood or waste material saturated with body fluids. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
Additional requirements include using color-coded bags or containers for storing biomedical waste, such as ______ bags or containers with the international biohazard symbol. Red or yellow
Rigid plastic sharps containers secure used _______ to prevent injuries. Follow local protocol or department policy for disposal of wastes classified as biomedical or biohazard. Syringes and needles
________ is a type of bacteria that is highly contagious and resistant to certain antibiotics Methicilin-Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus (MRSA)
Staph infections, includingMRSA, occur most frequently among persons in ________. Hospitals, healthcare facilities, detention facilities
What are the signs and symptoms of a skin infection? Wound site that is red, swollen area, painful area, an area that is warm to the touch or has purulent drainage, the site may look like a spider bite, pimple, or boil, the person may have a fever
There are multiple strains of hepatitis; the most common ones are ______. Hepatitis A virus, Hepatitis B virus, Hepatitis C virus
Hepatitis A, B, and C can all cause _______. a) heart disease b) kidney disease c) liver disease d) lungs disease Liver disease
______ is a virus that attacks the immune system Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)
________ causes hepatitis A. Hepatitis A virus
Hepatitis A is technically not a bloodborne disease; it is highly infectious and preventable with BSI and appropriate PPE. Hepatitis A virus
Its incubation period ranges from two weeks to two months Hepatitis A virus
How a person can get hepatitis A? Person-to-person contact primarily, Through fecal contamination and oral ingestion, Poor personal hygiene, Poor sanitation, Intimate contact facilitate transmission, Common source epidemics from contaminated food and water also occur
Sharing utensils, cigarettes, or kissing does not transmit the hepatitis A virus. a)TRUE b) FALSE TRUE
What are the signs and symptoms of hepatitis A? Fever, weakness, anorexia, nausea, abdominal discomfort, dark urine, jaundice
Outside of occupational setting, sexual contact or sharing contaminated needles (through intravenous drug abuse) primary transmits the __________ virus. Hepatitis B
Infected blood received through transfusions may infect persons with the ________. However, the risk of infection from a transfusion is extremely low because all donated blood is tested Hepatitis B
Hepatitis B can remain infectious in dried body fluids for an ______. Undetermined time
Hepatitis B virus symptoms range from ________. Minor flu-like, severe liver damage, even death, weakness, various muscle and joint pains, dark urine, diarrhea, weight loss, enlarged and tender liver
The federal Center for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) estimates that each year in the United States more than 200,000 people of all ages contract ________. Hepatitis B
Close to 5,000 die of the illnesses it causes, has disabling long-term effects, individuals often cannot continue to work. Some ______ virus carriers are infectious for life. They can transmit the disease while not experiencing obvious symptoms. Hepatitis B
Over 90 percent effective against _______ for seven or more years after vaccination, the vaccines stimulate active immunity. They are also 70 to 88 percent effective when vaccine is given within one week after hepatitis B virus exposure Hepatitis B
According to Center for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) reports, ________ is the most common chronic blood borne infection in the United States. Hepatitis C
The incubation period varies from person to person. Hepatitis C
Direct contact with human blood primarily transmits _______. Hepatitis C
Direct contact with human blood primarily transmits _______. Hepatitis C
Of all persons infected with the ________ virus in America, approximately one-third of infected persons pass through jails and prisons each year Hepatitis C
Hepatitis C’s signs and symptoms are similar to those of ________. Hepatitis B
Hepatitis C’s signs and symptoms are _________. Minor flu-like symptoms, severe liver damage, death, weakness, muscle and joint pains, dark urine, diarrhea, weight loss, enlarged and tender liveri) enlarged and tender liver
In reference to Hepatitis C not everyone infected necessarily experiences all the same symptoms. a) TRUE b) FALSE TRUE
Of ____ persons infected with the hepatitis C virus, about _____ persons develop long-term infection. 100; 85
105) ______ persons develop chronic liver disease. _______ persons develop cirrhosis, the scarring of liver tissue. (This may take 20 to 30 years to occur.) ______ will eventually die of cirrhosis or liver cancer Seventy; Fifteen; Five
Because of lab testing, chances of contracting the hepatitis C virus from a blood transfusion are very ______. Low
_______ does not spread the hepatitis C virus Casual contact, coughing, sneezing, food, water, sharing eating utensils, drinking glasses
Preventing hepatitis C depends on avoiding direct contact with _______. Avoid behaviors that spread the disease, especially direct contact with blood or blood products. Infected blood
There is no vaccine for hepatitis C. a) TRUE b) FALSE TRUE
What is the primary way HIV is transmitted? Sexual contact
Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)—Another bloodborne virus that attacks the immune system is HIV, which causes _________. Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome (AIDS
_______ transmission occurs primarily during sexual contact with an infected individual, intravenous drug abusers share contaminated needles, infected mother to unborn child, & from contact with blood/certain body fluids/tissue from an infected individual Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)
Criminal justice officers may have a greater risk of exposure to ______ than many other public employees do Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)
Careful blood donor _________ and blood testing before use have greatly reduced that risk factor. a) donation b) screening c) participation d) analysis screening
_________ do not transmit HIV. a) casual contact b) sneezes c) coughs d) insect stings e) all All
An individual infected with _____ may show no symptoms initially or have mild flu-like symptoms. Infected individuals may live many years without obvious symptoms of infection,becomes a lifelong carrier who can transmit the infection to others HIV
A chronic condition, it attacks the immune system and the body’s natural defense mechanisms against disease. HIV
No vaccine prevents HIV. However, using _____ and appropriate ______ can prevent this highly infectious disease from spreading. Take all reasonable precautions to avoid exposure to HIV and all communicable diseases. Body Substance Isolation (BSI) and Personal Protection Equipment (PPE)
Any infection spread from person to person through the air is an _______. Airborne infection
Breathing in microscopic, disease-bearing organisms called pathogens causes ________. Airborne infections
An infected person who coughs or sneezes into the air, particularly in a relatively confined space, transmits ______. Airborne infections
The lungs provide accumulation sites for airborne infectious microorganisms (bacterium and viruses) that cause communicable diseases, such as the ______. a) common cold b) chicken pox c) both forms of measles d) tuberculosis (TB) e) all All
Of particular concern to officers is _________. a) Measles b) Chicken pox c) Common cold d) Tuberculosis (TB) Tuberculosis (TB)
Nearly one-third of the world’s population has ________. a) airborne diseases b) Measles c) chicken pox d) common cold e) tuberculosis (TB) Tuberculosis (TB)
Over _____ deaths occur yearly from TB disease. 3,000,000
Sexually transmitted diseases (STDs), or sexually transmitted infections, are among the most _______ infectious diseases in the United States today. a) rare b) common c) particular d) diagnostic Common
Of at least ______ identifiable sexually transmitted diseases and infections, seven are most common: Chlamydia, genital herpes, genital warts, gonorrhea, HIV infection and AIDS, syphilis, and hepatitis B. 20
All sexually transmitted diseases (STDs), or sexually transmitted infections are preventable. a) TRUE b) FALSE True
The _______ is the supporting framework for the body, giving it shape and protecting vital organs. a) muscular system b) nervous system c) skeletal system d) respiratory system Skeletal system
The skeletal system main components are _________. Skull, hinged jawbone, spinal column, shoulder girdle, chest, pelvis
The _______ gives the body shape, protects internal organs, and provides body movement. a) skeletal system b) muscular system c) circulatory system d) nervous system Muscular system
The body contains different types of muscles. a) voluntary muscles b) involuntary muscles c) cardiac muscles d) all All- voluntary, involuntary cardiac
Muscles used for deliberate acts, such as chewing, bending, lifting, and running, are ________. voluntary muscles
_______, or smooth muscles, carry out many automatic body functions. They are in the walls of the tube-like organs, such as ducts, blood vessels, and the intestinal wall. The individual does not normally control these muscles Involuntary muscles
Found only in the heart, the ______ work constantly to expand and contract the heart. a) voluntary muscles b) involuntary muscles c) cardiac muscles d) all Cardiac muscles
The ________ controls voluntary and involuntary body activity. It also supports higher mental functions, such as thoughts and emotions. a) muscles b) central nervous system c) skeletal system d) nervous system Nervous system
The _________ is located in the brain and in the spinal cord. Its components are the body’s mainframe computer. a) nervous system b) peripheral nervous system c) central nervous system d) spinal nervous system Central nervous system
The _______ includes nerves that connect to the spinal cord and branch out to every other part of the body & serves as a two-way communication system. a) nervous system b) central nervous system c) peripheral nervous system d) brain nervous system Peripheral nervous system
The ________ delivers oxygen to and removes carbon dioxide from the blood. a) skeletal system b) muscular system c) circulatory system d) respiratory system Respiratory system
The ________ pumps blood throughout the body. a) skeletal system b) muscular system c) circulatory system d) respiratory system Circulatory system
The circulatory system functions to deliver oxygen and nutrients to and remove waste from the body’s tissues. a) skeletal system b) muscular system c) circulatory system d) respiratory system Circulatory system
Basic parts of the circulatory system are the ______. a) heart b) veins c) capillaries d) arteries e) blood f) all All
______ is a major artery in the neck, felt on either side of the neck a) Carotid b) Femoral c) Radial d) Brachial Carotid
________ is a major artery in the thigh, felt in the groin area a) Carotid b) Femoral c) Radial d) Brachial Femoral
Carotid b) Femoral c) Radial d) Brachial Radial
_______ is a major artery in the upper arm, felt on the inside of the upper arm a) Carotid b) Femoral c) Radial d) Brachial Brachial
The _________ has two main functions: ingesting and digesting food and nutrients. a) skeletal system b) muscular system c) circulatory system d) respiratory system e) digestive system Digestive system
Mainly in the abdomen, the digestive system’s organs include the ________. Stomach, pancreas, liver, gallbladder, small and large intestines
The _________ regulates body systems by secreting hormones directly into the bloodstream from glands. a) endocrine system b) muscular system c) circulatory system d) respiratory system e) digestive system Endocrine system
The bloodstream glands include the _________. Thyroid, adrenals, ovaries, testes, pituitary
The _________ is responsible for reproduction and waste removal. a) endocrine system b) muscular system c) genitourinary system d) respiratory system e) digestive system Genitourinary system
Urinary organs include ______. Kidneys, ureters, urethra (tubes through which urine flows), bladder, Male reproductive organs include the testes and the penis, the female reproductive system consists of ovaries, fallopian tubes, the uterus, the vagina, and external genitals
The ______ provides a barrier against bacteria and other harmful substances and organisms. a) lower extremities b) brachial artery c) skin d) heart Skin
Covering the entire body, ______ helps regulate body temperature. Skin
Acting as a communication organ, the _______ also receives and relays information about heat, cold, touch, pressure, and pain. Skin
The _____ transmits this information to the brain and spinal cord through nerve endings. Skin
Before you enter the _______, take an overall view of what you are about to expose yourself to. Scene
The size-up has several components: _______. a) scene safety b) mechanism of injury or nature of illness c) the number of victims d) the need for additional rescuers and special equipment e) all All
Scene safety always begins with your ______. Safety
If the scene is not safe and you have no means to make it safe, _______ a) inform dispatch b) enter c) request backup d) do not enter Do not enter
Quickly put all your observations together (see, hear, smell, and feel) to help determine what you and others need to do to make the _______. a) safe conclusion b) scene safe c) best decision d) scene approachable Scene safe
Possible dangers vary greatly depending on the scene ______. a) category b) type c) location d) size Type
Some situations commonly encountered on duty include vehicle crashes that involve specific dangers, such as _______. Unstable vehicles, entrapment, spills, fire
Violence scenes may involve ________. a) ongoing violence b) weapons c) unruly crowds d) unruly groups of inmates who dislike officerse) all All
Other situations encountered can include environmental dangers such as _______. a) hurricanes b) tornados c) sinkholes d) floods e) all All
While assessing scene safety, try to determine the mechanism of injury to the patient or the nature of the illness. Simply put, try to _____ what happened. a) judge b) figure out c) estimate d) determinate d) floods e) all Figure out
Understanding what happened helps you _______ the extent of injury or illness. a) think b) conclude c) determines d) judge Judge
What questions should an officer himself/herself to try to figure out what happened to judge the extent of the scene? Are you dealing with a trauma patient or a medical patient?
A trauma patient is an ______ persona) violentb) illc) injuredd) sick Injured
A medical patient is a person who is ______.a) violentb) illc) injuredd) sick Ill
A patient who belongs to both categories requires _______. a) treatment for each b) independent treatment c) specialized treatment d) hospitalization Treatment for each
The next size-up component is determining the number of victims, if there is more than one find out: How many and their locations.
In certain situations, such as rollover car crashes, patients ejected from a vehicle are difficult to find. In those situations, you may need to question other ________. Victims, witnesses, bystanders
Assess the needf and relay a request for additional resources, special equipment or special resuce teams, such as: Trauma teams, fire department, K-9, search and rescue, utilities
Remember from CPR training that assessment begins with ______, the ABCs Airway, breathing, circulation
Consider the position of the patient with regard to spinal injury and airway compromise, to include _________. a) Alert, Verbal, Pain, Unresponsive b) initial assessment c) Airway, breathing, and circulation d) positional asphyxia Positional asphyxia
Identify yourself and let the patient know you came to help. ______ touch and speak to the patient. a) Gently b) Aggressively c) Softly d) Carefully Gently
What are the levels of responsiveness when assessing a patient? AVPU-- Alert, Verbal, Pain, Unresponsive
_______—Determine if the patient is alert. Ask simple questions such as, “What is your name? What day is it? Where are you?” Consider a patient who responds correctly and spontaneously as alert and oriented.a) Alertb) Verbalc) Paind) Unresponsive Alert
______—A patient who responds verbally to your questions but appears disoriented, or only responds to loud noises, is responding to verbal stimuli.a) Alertb) Verbalc) Paind) Unresponsive Verbal
________-A patient who does not respond to verbal stimuli but responds to pain stimuli is at the pain responsiveness level. You can assess responsiveness with a pinprick, by pinching the ear lobe, or giving a sternal rub. Pain
______—A patient who responds to none of the stimuli listed above is unresponsive or unconsciousa) Alertb) Verbalc) Paind) Unresponsive Unresponsive
Place face near mouth & nose to detect breathing, watch the chest (rise and fall), What steps a police officer should take to check for ABCs? Place face near mouth & nose to detect breathing, watch the chest (rise and fall), breathe increasing or decreasing? wheezing or snoring? Is breathing adequate? Good skin color and effortless breathing characterize adequate breathing
Adult normal breathing rates is ______. a) 12-20 b) 15-30 c) 25-50 12-20
Child normal breathing rates is _____ breaths per minutes. a) 12-20 b) 15-30 c) 25-50 d) all 15-30
Infant normal breathing rates is ______. a) 12-20 b) 15-30 c) 25-50 25-50
Note the quality of breathing, which includes the rhythm and depth of breath.a) TRUEb) FALSE TRUE
______ is the interval between breaths. _______ is the equal time between breaths. _______ is the time varies between breaths. a) Rhythm. Regular. Irregular b) Depth. Normal. Short gasps. Deep c) painful d) all Rhythm. Regular. Irregular
___ or manner of breathing. ___ is the breathing is average and hardly noticeable shallow. __ is very little airflow. ___ is hyperventilation; large airflow a) Rhythm. Regular. Irregular b) Depth. Normal. Short gasps. Deep c) painful d) all Depth. Normal. Short gasps. Deep
Relay vital information to responding medical personnel. Report the rate first and then the qualities, for example, “slow, irregular, and shallow.” a) TRUE b) FALSE TRUE
Assess patient circulation by _____. a) pulse rate b) skin color c) skin temperature d) all All
To take a patient’s pulse, place your fingers (not your thumb) on a pulse point. Count the # of beats for __. Multiply this # by __ to arrive at the patient’s average pulse rate. a) 15 sec; four b) 20 sec; two c) 30 min; by three d) 40 sec; by two 15 seconds; four
On a conscious adult or child, check the _______. a) radial pulse b) carotid pulse c) brachial pulse Radial pulse
On an unconscious adult or child, check the _______. a) radial pulse b) carotid pulse c) brachial pulse Carotid pulse
On an infant, check the _______. a) radial pulse b) carotid pulse c) brachial pulse Brachial pulse
What is the normal pulse for an adult?a) 60–100b) 100–120c) 120–160 60–100
What is the normal pulse for a child?a) 60–100b) 100–120c) 120–160 100–120
What is the normal pulse of an infant?a) 60–100b) 100–120c) 120–160 120–160
If patient’s pulse rate is outside adult/child/infant ranges, consider the situation a __. Look for and treat uncontrolled bleeding before continuing with the assessment. a) health issue b) heart attack c) life-threatening emergency d) possible shock Life-threatening emergency
Assess a patient’s ______ by placing the back of your hand against the patient’s skin to determine relative skin temperature. a) alcohol level b) skin temperature c) health condition d) blood pressure Skin temperature
If the skin feels _____, the patient could be suffering from heat exhaustion, shock, or exposure to a cold environment a) warm b) hot c) warmish d) cool Cool
If the skin feels _____, the patient could have a fever or heat stroke. a) warm b) hot c) warmish d) cool Hot
Change in body temperature can indicate ______. a) bleeding b) poor circulation c) swelling d) infected area Poor circulation
A hot spot on the skin can indicate an _______. a) swelling b) poor circulation c) bleeding d) infected area Infected area
_______: possible shock or heart attack, fright, impaired blood flow a) Moist skin b) Yellow skin (jaundice) c) Blue skin (cyanosis) d) Red skin (flush) e) Pale skin f) Dry skin Pale skin
______: alcohol presence, heat stroke, fever, sunburn, high blood pressure, infection, or physical exertion a) Moist skin b) Yellow skin (jaundice) c) Blue skin (cyanosis) d) Red skin (flush) e) Pale skin f) Dry skin Red skin (flush)
______: appears first in the mouth and fingertip areas, reduced oxygen level, possibly due to shock, heart attack, or poisoning. Look for changes in circulation in the color of lips, palms, and nail beds. Look inside the eyelid of a dark-skinned patient Blue skin (cyanosis)
________: liver problems a) Moist skin b) Yellow skin (jaundice) c) Blue skin (cyanosis) d) Red skin (flush) e) Pale skin f) Dry skin Yellow skin (jaundice)
_______: heart attack or possible shock a) Moist skin b) Yellow skin (jaundice) c) Blue skin (cyanosis) d) Red skin (flush) e) Pale skin f) Dry skin Moist skin
_______: heat stroke or diabetic emergency a) Moist skin b) Yellow skin (jaundice) c) Blue skin (cyanosis) d) Red skin (flush) e) Pale skinf) Dry skin Dry skin
Carefully work from _______, inspecting and palpating (touching) each body part before moving to the next. a) toe-to-head b) arms-to-legs c) head-to-toe d) body Head-to-toe
What are you looking for when comparing an injured body? a) Injuries b) Deformities, open injuries, tenderness, swelling (DOTS) c) Swelling d) Open injuries Deformities, open injuries, tenderness, swelling (DOTS)
The "D" in D.O.T.S stands for________. a) Disfiguration b) Deformities c) Dislocation d) Discoloration Deformities
The "O" in D.O.T.S stands for________. a) Open holes b) Open wounds c) Open injuries d) Open deformities Open injuries
The "T" in D.O.T.S stands for________. a) Tendency b) Tacful c) Tendernessd) Tender Tenderness
The "S" in D.O.T.S stands for________. a) Swelling b) Symptoms c) Soft d) Substances Swelling
Starting at the head. Observe anything out of the ordinary, such as ______. Swelling, fluid loss from the ears or nose, discoloration around the eyes (raccoon eyes), mouth injuries that may obstruct the airway, discoloration behind the ears (battle signs
Look at the pupils, do they appear round equally sized, constricted (pinpointed), or dilated (enlarged)? Do they move or remain fixed? Flash penlight at each pupil both should react equally. This test can help you detect a ________. Head injury, presence of alcohol, presence of drugs, presence of other substances
Injury to the head, neck, shoulders, back, and abdomen may cause injury to the ______. a) spinal cord b) brain c) circulatory system Spinal cord
What is the correct way of opening the airway with someone who has a neck or spinal injury?a) Jaw pat maneuver b) Jaw push maneuver c) Jaw thrust maneuver d) Jaw slide maneuver Jaw thrust maneuver
After you commit to stabilizing the head & neck, you ____ stay with the patient until EMS relieves you. The object is to keep the breathing patient’s head in the same position you found it and to prevent movement until advanced medical personnel arrives. Must
The _________ method may help you acquire information useful in determining causes of injury or illness. a) SAMPLE b) SECURE c) SARA d) TRIAGE SAMPLE
SAMPLE means Signs and symptoms, allergies, medications, past history, last oral intake, and events. a) TRUE b) FALSE TRUE
_________—What can you see? (sign/objective)What does the patient feel? (symptom/subjective) a) Signs and symptoms b) Allergies c) Medications d) Past history e) Last oral intakef) Events Signs and symptoms
________—Does the patient have allergies? a) Signs and symptoms b) Allergies c) Medications d) Past history e) Last oral intake f) Events Allergies
_______—Is the patient currently taking medication; when was the last dose? a) Signs and symptoms b) Allergies c) Medications d) Past history e) Last oral intake f) Events Medications
________—What other medical problems may contribute to the patient’s current condition?a) Signs and symptoms b) Allergies c) Medications d) Past history e) Last oral intake f) Events Past history
_______—When did the patient last eat or drink? a) Signs and symptoms b) Allergies c) Medications d) Past history e) Last oral intake f) Events Last oral intake
______—What events led to this incident? a) Signs and symptoms b) Allergies c) Medications d) Past history e) Last oral intake f) Events Events
As the first person on the scene of a ________, you must relay scene and patient information to medical responders when they arrive. a) fire fighters b) medical responders c) bystanders d) family members Medical responders
What do you do when a patient is in immediate danger or the patient’s location prevents providing care to that patient or another patient? a) Emergency move b) Clothes drag c) Recovery position d) Emergency drag e) Non-emergency move Emergency move
Perform a nonemergency move, such as a walking assist, when the situation is not urgent. a) Emergency move b) Clothes drag c) Recovery position d) Emergency drag e) Non-emergency move Non-emergency move
Perform a this move, such as a walking assist, when the situation is not urgent. a) Emergency move b) Clothes drag c) Recovery position d) Emergency drag e) Non-emergency move Non-emergency move
Always use BSI and appropriate PPE when moving a patient. a) TRUE b) FALSE TRUE
Place an unresponsive, breathing patient with no suspected _____ in the recovery position: roll patient, preferably onto his or her left side, with knees slightly bent. a) head or back injuries b) neck or back injuries c) neck injuries d) spinal injury Neck or back injuries
In the _______: roll the patient, preferably onto his or her left side, with knees slightly bent. a) positional asphyxia b) physical restraints c) recovery position d) in-custody death Recovery position
The _________ helps maintain an open airway if the patient becomes nauseated or vomits and may prevent positional asphyxia Recovery position
_________ is a term used to describe the placement of a body in a position that interferes with the ability to breathe. a) Positional asphyxia b) Physical restraints c) Recovery position d) In-custody death Positional asphyxia
Application of physical restraints can contribute to positional asphyxia when a subject is placed ____. a) face down b) with his or her chest on a hard surface c) arms restrained behind his or her back d) left for a significant period of time e) all All
Positional asphyxia may result in an ________. a) positional asphyxia b) physical restraints c) recovery position d) in-custody death In-custody death
Stand next to patient, same side as the injury, place P arm across your shoulder, place your arm around the P’s waist. Grab belt, assist the to a safe location & discourage placing body weight on the injury. These are the steps to assist the P on _____. Walking assist
Stand at patient’s head, bend knees, slide hands under the patient’s arms, firmly grasp patient’s wrists, fold them across chest. Stand up, lift patient up & toward you, drag toward you, feet will drag the ground. This is steps to assist patient ____. Shoulder drag/carr
Use the ________ technique only when moving the patient is necessary or when assisting medical personnel. a) shoulder drag/carry b) extremity lift or carry c) logroll d) two-person extremity lift Logroll
The purpose of a logroll is to roll the patient onto his or her a) back or b) front c) side d) or e) all All
Perform a _______ on the floor or ground with at least three officers on their knees. a) shoulder drag/carry b) extremity lift or carryc) logrolld) two-person extremity lift Logroll
Logroll--Officer _____, constantly maintain head, neck, and spinal stabilization. a) one b) two c) three d) all One
Logroll--Officer ______, take your position at the patient’s shoulder and hip. Stay far enough away from the side of patient’s body so there is room to roll the patient toward you. a) one b) two c) three d) all two
Officer __, take position on the same side of the patient as officer two. Stand at the patient’s thigh and lower leg. Stay far enough away from the side of patient’s body so there is room to roll the patient toward you. a) one b) two c) three d) all Three
Logroll--Officer _____, reach across the patient. Place your hand on the patient’s shoulder. Place your other hand on the patient’s hip. a) one b) two c) three d) all two
Officer ______, reach across the patient. Logroll--Place your hand closer to the second officer’s hand on the patient’s hip. Place your other hand on the outside of the patient’s knee area. a) one b) two c) three d) all Officer ______, reach across the patient. Place your hand closer to the second officer’s hand on the patient’s hip. Place your other hand on the outside of the patient’s knee area.a) oneb) two*c) threed) all
Logroll--Officer ____, issue all commands to roll the patient. While maintaining patient’s head, neck, and cervical spine alignment. Assess the for injuries, reverse the process to return the patient to original position. *a) one b) two c) three one
Incidents that involve more than one victim are called _______. a) SAMPLE b) Multiple Casualty Incidents (MCI) c) TRIAGE d) Simple Triage and Rapid Treatment Multiple Casualty Incidents (MCI)
Your role as first officer on the scene involves ____. a) look for suspects hiding b) establish command of the scene, communicating with EMS, and beginning triage c) interview witnesses to determine the cause of the MCI d) begin triage immediately Establishing command of the scene, communicating with EMS, and beginning triage
Inform ______ of additional resources or equipment that you may need for an MCI a) EMS personnel b) fire department c) rescue team d) communication center EMS personnel
The next steps after your informing the communication center and/or responding EMS personnel is to begin _______. a) SAMPLE b) START c) triage d) Physical assessment Triage
______ is the term given to sorting and classifying patients. a) SAMPLE b) Physical assessment c) Triage d) START Triage
Triage determines in which order patients receive medical attention. Although methods of performing triage differ, its basic principles remain the same. a) TRUE b) FALSE TRUE
Define START. a) Security Tactics and Rapid Tyranny b) Security Teams and Rapid Tactics c) Simple Triage and Rapid Treatment d) Simple Training and Rapid Treatment Simple Triage and Rapid Treatment
______ (START) is the initial triage system based upon Florida Incident Field Operations Guide (FOG). a) Security Tactics & Rapid Tyranny b) Security Teams & Rapid Tactics c) Simple Triage & Rapid Treatment d) Simple Training & Rapid Treatment Simple Triage & Rapid Treatment
The ________ (START) method of triage assesses a large number of victims rapidly and personnel with limited medical training can use it effectively. Simple Triage & Rapid Treatment
Classify patients according to the START protocols. a) RED—immediate b) YELLOW—delayed c) GREEN—ambulatory (minor) d) BLACK—deceased (expectant/non-salvageable) e) All All
According to the START: immediate is _________ RED
According to the START: delaye is _________ YELLOW
According to the START: ambulatory (minor) is _________ GREEN
According to the START: deceased (expectant/non-salvageable) is _________ BLACK
_______ is the failure of the heart and blood vessels (circulatory system) to maintain enough oxygen-rich blood flowing to the vital organs of the body. a) Psychogenic shock b) Heart attack c) Neurogenic shock d) Shock Shock
Signs and symptoms of shock may include anxiety, restlessness, and fainting, nausea and vomiting, excessive thirst, eyes that are vacant and dull (lackluster) with large (dilated) pupils, and also: Shallow, rapid, and irregular breathing, pale, cool, and/or moist (clammy) skin, weak, rapid, or absent pulse
________ decreased amount of blood or fluids in the body. a) Anaphylactic shock (allergic) b) Psychogenic shock c) Hypovolemic (low volume) shock d) Shock e) Neurogenic shock Hypovolemic (low volume) shock
_______ shock decrease results from injuries that produce internal & external bleeding, fluid loss due to burns, & dehydration due to severe vomiting & diarrhea. a) Anaphylactic b) Psychogenic c) Hypovolemic d) Shock e) Neurogenic Hypovolemic (low volume) shock
_________ shock is an abnormal enlargement of the blood vessels, which is often caused by brain or spinal cord injury. a) Anaphylactic b) Psychogenic c) Hypovolemic d) Shock e) Neurogenic Neurogenic shock
____________ is a “shock like condition” produced by excessive fear, joy, anger, or grief. Post-Traumatic Stress Syndrome (PTSS) is a psychological adjustment reaction to extreme, stressful experiences such as war, multiple casualty incidents, etc. Psychogenic shock
Care for PTSS is limited to emotional support and transportation of the patient to: A medical facility.
__________ shock occurs when an individual is exposed to a substance to which his or her body is sensitive. a) Anaphylactic b) Psychogenic c) Hypovolemic d) Shock e) Neurogenic Anaphylactic shock (allergic)
Types of closed soft tissue injuries are ________. a) Contusion (bruising) b) Bruising c) Hematoma d) Swelling e) Hematoma (swelling) All
________ is a closed injury that is discolored and painful at the injury site. a) Contusion (bruising) b) Bruising c) Hematoma d) Swelling e) Hematoma (swelling) Contusion (bruising)
_______ is the obvious discoloration (black and blue) of the soft tissue at the injury site.a) Contusion (bruising) b) Bruising c) Hematoma d) Swelling e) Hematoma (swelling) Bruising
_______ is a closed injury that appears as a discolored lump. a) Contusion (bruising) b) Bruising c) Hematoma d) Swelling e) Hematoma (swelling) Hematoma (swelling)
________ is the soft tissue raised when blood or other body fluids pool beneath the skin at the injury site. a) Contusion (bruising) b) Bruising c) Hematoma d) Swelling e) Hematoma (swelling) Swelling
Types of open soft tissue injuries are ________. a) abrasion b) amputation c) avulsion d) evisceration e) laceration f) puncture wound g) all All
________ is an open wound caused by scraping, shearing away, or rubbing the outermost skin layera) Abrasionb) Amputationc) Avulsiond) Evisceratione) Lacerationf) Puncture wound Abrasion
________ is a gross removal of appendagea) Abrasionb) Amputationc) Avulsiond) Evisceratione) Lacerationf) Puncture wound Amputation
________ is an injury characterized by a flap of torn or cut skin that may not be completely loose from the body a) Abrasion b) Amputation c) Avulsion d) Evisceration e) Lacerationf) Puncture wound Avulsion
________ is an open wound where the organs protrude a) Abrasion b) Amputation c) Avulsion d) Evisceration e) Laceration f) Puncture wound Evisceration
________ is an open wound in soft tissue that varies in depth and width a) Abrasion b) Amputation c) Avulsion d) Evisceration e) Laceration f) Puncture wound Laceration
__________ is the result of driving a sharp or blunt, pointed object into soft tissue a) Abrasion b) Amputation c) Avulsion d) Evisceration e) Laceration f) Puncture wound Puncture wound
There are three types of bleeding, they are: Arterial, venous, capillary
In _________, bright red blood spurts from a wound, indicating a severed or damaged artery. a) arterial bleeding b) venous bleeding c) capillary bleeding arterial bleeding
In _________, dark red blood flows steadily from a wound, indicating a severed or damaged vein. a) arterial bleeding b) venous bleeding venous bleeding
In ________, dark red blood oozes slowly from a wound, indicating damaged capillaries. a) arterial bleeding b) venous bleeding c) capillary bleeding capillary bleeding
________ are usually the result of an object, blunt or sharp, penetrating the skin’s soft tissue. a) Obstruction b) Impaled object c) Force d) Puncture wounds Puncture wounds
A penetrating or puncture wound’s severity depends on the ________. a) wound’s location b) object’s size c) forces that created the injury d) all All
An ________ is an object that punctures the soft tissue and stays in place. a) obstruction b) impaled object c) force d) puncture wounds impaled object
An _______ in the head, neck, or thorax needs immediate care followed by prompt EMS transport. a) obstruction b) objected impaled c) force d) puncture wounds objected impaled
Identify when to remove an impaled object. a) When it is in an eye b) When a major organ is affected c) When obstructs the patient’s airway d) When it seems serious When obstructs the patient’s airway
A _____ can be a serious body injury. a) an impaled object b) a neurogenic shock c) contusion d) bite Bite
The wound of a _____ can become infected and cause severe discomfort. In rare instances, limbs are lost. a) an impaled object b) a neurogenic shock c) contusion d) bite Bite
Human or animal bites are more likely to become infected than other wounds. With human bites, be aware of the possibility of ________. a) officer safety b) bloodborne pathogens c) tuberculosis d) biohazardous contamination Bloodborne pathogens
Gunshot wounds can cause serious injury by _________ and otherwise damaging internal organs. a) fragmenting b) penetrating c) vibrating d) all All
For any gunshot wound not in an extremity, consider ________immobilization. a) recovery position b) logroll c) spinal d) head e) neck f) shoulder alignment Spinal
What are the most serious emergencies? a) eye b) foot c) nose bleeds d) head and neck Head and neck
What are the most serious emergencies? a) eye b) foot c) nose bleeds d) head and neck Head and neck
If a head or neck injury is obvious or suspected, or if a trauma patient is unresponsive, immediately stabilize the ________. a) eye b) foot c) nose bleeds d) head and neck Head and neck
Scalp wounds may bleed profusely but are usually easy to control with ________. a) direct pressure b) pressure points c) elevation d) tourniquets Direct pressure
_______ apply direct pressure to a head wound if the patient has an obvious or depressed skull fracture. You might drive fragments of bone into brain tissue, causing further damage. a) Always b) Depend on the case c) Never d) Sometime Never
Your main concern is establishing and maintaining an _______. a) patient safety b) act according you department policies c) open airway d) officer safety Open airway
Which are types of eye traumas? a) Eyelid injuries, chemical burns, objects impaled in the eye, & an extruded eyeball b) Cornea, retina, iris & pupil c) Lens, choroid layer, & sclera d) Eyeball, eyelids, eye muscles, ophthalmology, & optic nerve Eyelid injuries, chemical burns, objects impaled in the eye, and an extruded eyeball
If an object entered the eye, such as ______, remove it by flushing the eye with water. a) finger b) pencil c) tiny rock d) dirt or sand Dirt or sand
How do you treat an eyelid itself? a) Gentry applying patches to both eyes b) Cover it with a moist dressing and apply bandage to both eyes c) Cover it with a dry dressing d) Apply bandage to the injured eye Gentry applying patches to both eyes
Treat trauma to the eye socket that cause the eyeball to come out of its socket? a) Restore the eyeball to the socket, apply bandage b) Do not try to restore the eyeball to the socket. Cover with moist dressing, & apply bandage over both eyes Do not try to restore the eyeball to the socket. Cover it with a moist dressing, and apply a bandage over both eyes
The _______ contains major blood vessels and the windpipe (trachea). a) neck b) open wounds c) swelling d) spinal injury Neck
______ wounds can bleed profusely. a) Neck b) Open wounds c) Swelling d) Spinal injury e) All Neck
Air entering a blood vessel in the neck can cause ________. a) stroke b) heart attack c) pulmonary embolism d) All All
For deep lacerations on the _______, apply an occlusive (airtight) dressing. a) neck b) chest c) abdomen d) all Neck
When assessing for a neck wound, look for obvious deformity of the ________. a) neck b) open wounds c) swelling d) spinal injury e) all All
Where would you cover with dressing and a bandage? a) Arms b) Abdomen c) Finger d) Neck Neck
Do not wrap the bandage around the neck. a) TRUE b) FALSE TRUE
A _______ in the chest area can affect the patient’s breathing. a) heart attack b) puncture wound c) stroke d) closed chest injury e) flail chest Puncture wound
A ________injury results from blunt trauma to the chest area. a) heart attack b) puncture wound c) stroke d) closed chest injury e) flail chest Closed chest injury
A _______ damages internal organs and/or causes internal bleeding. a) heart attack b) puncture wound c) stroke d) closed chest injury e) flail chest Closed chest injury
A _______ is a type of closed chest injury. a) heart attack b) puncture wound c) stroke d) closed chest injury e) flail chest Flail chest
A ________ occurs when two or more adjacent ribs are fractured in two or more places and become free floating. a) heart attack b) puncture wound c) stroke d) closed chest injury e) flail chest Flail chest
An ________ occurs when penetration opens the chest area. a) sucking chest injury b) puncture wound c) open chest injury d) closed chest injury Open chest injury
A ____ is a type of open chest injury in which air and/or blood escapes into the area surrounding the lungs, creating a change in the pressure in the chest cavity. a) sucking chest injury b) puncture wound c) open chest injury d) closed chest injury Sucking chest injury
________ can create breathing difficulties because it will not allow the lungs to expand and contract properly. a) Sucking chest injury b) Puncture wound c) Open chest injury d) Closed chest injury Sucking chest injury
You may hear a _______ noise or the injury may bubble as air moves through the open injury. a) sucking b) puncture c) open chest d) closed chest Sucking
An _______ is an open wound where the organs protrude from the abdominal cavity. a) flail chest b) closed chest injury c) abdominal evisceration d) neck injury Abdominal evisceration
Do not get tunnel vision with a case of an abdominal evisceration open wound. a) TRUE b) FALSE TRUE
What is the medical term for a broken bone? a) Break b) Crack c) Fracture d) Injury Fracture
An ________ fracture is when the at the injury site is broken, and the bone may protrude through the skin. a) open b) partial c) closed d) sustained Open
A _________ fracture is when the skin at the injury site remains intact. a) open b) partial c) closed d) sustained Closed
Force breaks a _____. a) hand b) foot c) heart d) bone Bone
There are several types of force: _________. a) Direct force b) Indirect force c) Twisting force d) All All
_______ causes injury at the point of impact. a) Direct force b) Indirect force c) Twisting force d) All Direct force
Force delivered from a blow to the head with a baseball bat or as a driver’s chest hits the steering wheel is an example of ______. a) direct force b) indirect force c) twisting force d) all Direct force
_______ causes injury past the point of impact. a) Direct force b) Indirect force c) Twisting force d) All Indirect force
The break may occur when a falling person extends the arms to break the fall and breaks his or her elbows is an example of _______. a) direct force b) indirect force c) twisting force d) all Indirect force
_______ causes injury when one part of a limb remains stationary, while the other twists. This is an example of ______. a) Direct force b) Indirect force c) Twisting force d) all Twisting force
The result can be a spiral fracture, a bone break often caused by a sports injury or physical abuse. This is an example of ________. a) direct force b) indirect force c) twisting force d) all Twisting force
Define PMS.a) Pre-Menstrual Syndrome b) Post Medical Survey c) Pulse, Motor, Sensory d) Premeditated Murders Symptoms Pulse, Motor, Sensory
_________ assess for circulation before and after splinting by checking for distal circulation below the injury site a) Pulse b) Motor c) Sensory d) Survey Pulse
_________ assess for movement of upper extremities. Ask the patient to move his or her fingers and/or squeeze your hand. a) Pulse b) Puncture c) Motor d) Sensory Motor
_________ assess sensation before movement. As the patient if he or she has feeling where you touch. a) Pulse b) Motor c) Sensory d) Survey Sensory
_________ occurs when the end of a bone comes out of the socket at the joint. a) Fracture b) Separated c) Sprain d) Dislocation Dislocation
Do not try to put the dislocated bone back into place because major _________ and nerves can lie near the joint. Further injury may occur if you do this improperly. a) blood vessels b) impaled object c) arteries d) capillary Blood vessels
How do you treat an extremity fracture? a) Splint (tablilla) b) Sling (vendaje) c) Swath (tela alrededor cuello y brazo) d) All All
There are two types of amputations: _______. a) severe and regular b) bleeding and not bleeding c) complete and incomplete d) total and partial Complete and incomplete
______ injuries are classified by depth. a) Burns b) Superficial burns c) Partial thickness d) Full thickness Burns
_______ are the least serious, partial thickness burns involve more skin layers and are more serious, and full thickness burns are the most serious. a) Burns b) Superficial burns c) Partial thickness d) Full thickness Superficial burns
_________ (first-degree) burns damage the first layer of skin, which becomes red and feels very painful. a) Burns b) Superficial burns c) Partial thickness d) Full thickness Superficial burns
_________ (second-degree) burns damage the first two skin layers, which blister and feel very painful. a) Burns b) Superficial burns c) Partial thickness d) Full thickness Partial thickness
_________ (third-degree) burns damage all skin layers and affect muscles and nerves. a) Burns b) Superficial burns c) Partial thickness d) Full thickness Full thickness
Skin looks waxy, white, or charred are examples of ______. a) burns b) superficial burns c) partial thickness d) full thickness Full thickness
Because of nerve damage at the site of a ________ burn, the patient may feel no pain. a) burns b) superficial burns c) partial thickness d) full thickness Full thickness
Superficial burns are ______. a) first-degree b) second-degree c) third-degree d) all First-degree
Partial thickness burns are _______. a) first-degree b) second-degree c) third-degree d) all Second-degree
Full thickness burns are _______. a) first-degree b) second-degree c) third-degree d) all Third-degree
Thermal burns, chemical burns, electrical burns, and inhalation burns are ______. a) burns classifications b) types of burns c) burns units d) inflicted burns Types of burns
Burns on the ________ should be considered a critical burn. a) face b) hands c) fee d) genitals e) all All
The anatomical structures present in childbirth are _________. a) uterus b) cervix c) placenta d) birth canal e) umbilical cord f) amniotic sac g) all All
______ is an organ that holds the developing fetus a) Uterus b) Cervix c) Placenta d) Birth canal e) Umbilical cord f) Amniotic sac Uterus
______ is neck of the uterus; contains a mucus plug a) Uterus b) Cervix c) Placenta d) Birth canal e) Umbilical cord f) Amniotic sac Cervix
_______ is a disk-shaped inner lining of the uterus; provides nourishment and oxygen to the developing a) Uterus b) Cervix c) Placenta d) Birth canal e) Umbilical cord f) Amniotic sac Placenta
________ is a passage the fetus is pushed through during a) Uterus b) Cervix c) Placenta d) Birth canal e) Umbilical cord f) Amniotic sac Birth canal
________ is a cord connecting the fetus and the mother; transports nourishment to the a) Uterus b) Cervix c) Placenta d) Birth canal e) Umbilical cord f) Amniotic sac Umbilical cord
_______ is a bag of fluid surrounding the a) Uterus b) Cervix c) Placenta d) Birth canal e) Umbilical cord f) Amniotic sac Amniotic sac
The final phase of pregnancy, _______ also begins the birthing process. a) dilation b) expulsion c) placental d) labor Labor
______ consists of contractions of the uterine wall that force the fetus and later the placenta into the outside world. a) Dilation b) Expulsion c) Placental d) Labor Labor
Normal labor occurs in several stages _________. a) dilation b) expulsion c) placental d) all All
1st stage begins with 1st contraction and continues until the fetus enters the birth canal, the amniotic sac may rupture, causing fluid gushes from the vagina. Patient may say something like, “My water broke.” a) Dilation b) Expulsion c) Placental Dilation
2nd stage, fetus moves thru the birth canal & is born. Mother experiences pressure, pain, uncontrollable urge to push down. Head crowns, or becomes visible, as it emerges from the vagina, shoulders & rest follow. a) Dilation b) Expulsion c) Placental Expulsion
In the third stage, the ________ separates from the uterine wall and moves through the birth canal for delivery. This stage usually occurs within 30 minutes after the baby’s delivery. a) dilation b) expulsion c) placenta d) all Placental
Dilation (_________)a) preparationb) delivery of the babyc) delivery of the placentad) all Preparation
Expulsion (________)a) preparation*b) delivery of the babyc) delivery of the placentad) all Delivery of the baby
Placental (________)a) preparationb) delivery of the baby*c) delivery of the placentad) all Delivery of the placenta
Although the vast majority of pregnancies and deliveries are normal, you must be aware of possible complications, some of them are: poisoning of the blood (toxemia), vaginal bleeding, pain in the lower stomach and/or under the diaphragm…the rest are: Passage of tissue from the vagina, tender, bloated, or rigid stomach, missed menstrual periods, signs of shock
________ results from the narrowing of airway passages, which causes breathing difficulties. a) Asthma b) Heart disease c) Stroke d) Diabetes Asthma
Signs and symptoms of asthma are __________. a) breathing difficulty while exhaling b) a wheezing or whistling sound c) tense d) frightened e) nervous behavior f) all All
A _______ is damage to part of the brain due to rupture or blockage of a blood vessel. a) asthma b) heart disease c) stroke d) diabetes Stroke
Signs and symptoms of a stroke include: numbness/paralysis of extremities, typically on one side, confusion or dizziness, difficulty speaking or slurred speech, difficulty with vision, as well as: Headaches, seizures, diminished consciousness/unconsciousness, difficulty breathing, facial drooping
A _________ is caused by oxygen deprivation to part of the heart, typically from a blocked blood vessel. a) asthma b) heart attacks c) stroke d) diabetes Heart attacks
A ________ may lead to cardiac arrest; be prepared to administer CPR. a) asthma b) heart attacks c) stroke d) diabetes Heart attacks
Possible signs and symptoms of a heart attack are _______. a) chest pain (may radiate to other parts of the body: arm/jaw) b) difficulty breathing c) cool, pale, moist skin/profuse sweating d) nausea/vomiting f) dizziness g) irregular pulse *h) all All
________ is a disease in which the body does not produce or use insulin.a) Asthmab) Heart diseasec) Stroke*d) Diabetes Diabetes
________ is a hormone needed to convert sugar, starches, and other food into energy needed for daily life.a) Insulinb) Diabetesc) Seizuresd) Hypothermia Insulin
Intoxicated appearance, (staggering/slurred speech; altered mental state, including dizziness, drowsiness, and confusion; without smell of alcohol). These are the signs and symptoms of a _______. a) Asthma b) Insulin c) Diabetic Emergencies d) Diabetes Diabetic Emergencies
Person in a diabetic emergency often exhibit signs & symptoms resembling drunkenness or drug overdose. a) Make assumptions & arrest this person immediate b) Do not make assumptions; investigate further before making an arrest c) Request an ambulance Do not make assumptions; investigate further before making an arrest
Intoxicated appearance, sweet/fruity/acetone-smelling breath (might mistake alcohol) irregular breathing, rapid or weak pulse; flushed, dry or moist, warm skin; seizures. These are the signs and symptoms of a _______. Diabetic Emergencies
When assessing a conscious patient, ask if he or she has a _______. a) insulin b) blood sugar/glucose monitors c) syringes d) medical condition Medical condition
If patient says he has diabetes, you should ______. a) ask if the person has eaten or taken medication and/or insulin b) look for medical alert tags c) look for obvious signs, syringes/insulin/insulin pumps/blood sugar/glucose monitors d) all All
Do not give the patient anything by mouth unless he or she is ______. a) fully conscious b) out c) aware d) competent Fully conscious
_________ symptoms range from a blank stare into space or random shaking to twitching extremities or whole body muscle contractions. a) Asthma b) Seizures c) Stroke d) Diabetes Seizures
Incontinent means: Lose bowel or bladder control
While having a _______, patient may stop breathing temporarily; bite his tongue, become incontinent, make noises, spit and have a foamy appearance around the mouth, and/or be unresponsive. a) asthma b) seizure c) stroke d) diabetes Seizure
Causes of seizures include ________. a) head injury, trauma b) stroke, shock, high fever (predominately in children) c) poisoning, including alcohol and drug-related poisoning d) complications from pregnancy e) diseases f) unknown causes g) all All
Clear the _____ around the patient having a seizure to prevent further injury. a) throat b) area c) purse/wallet d) neck Area
Persons experiencing a _______ often exhibit signs and symptoms that resemble drunkenness or drug overdose and in some cases may show signs of aggression. a) heart attack b) seizure c) convulsion d) minor seizure Minor seizure
Do not make assumptions, if a person signs and symptoms that resemble drunkenness or drug overdose and in some cases may show signs of aggression. Investigate further before making _______. a) an arrest b) contacting EMS c) a mistake d) assumption An arrest
Heat and cold emergencies may result in bodily injury and ultimately cause _______. a) drunkenness b) an injury c) death d) an illness Death
________ may be more susceptible to these types of injuries. a) elderly persons b) infants c) diabetics d) persons with various pre-existing health conditions e) all All
Exposure to cold causes ________. a) hypothermia b) hypothermia and frostbite c) frostbite d) hyperthermia Hypothermia and frostbite
________ is an excessive cooling of the body’s core temperature a) Hypothermia b) Hypothermia and frostbite c) Frostbite d) Hyperthermia Hypothermia
_______ is a localized injury from overexposure to cold. a) Hypothermia b) Hypothermia and frostbite c) Frostbite d) Hyperthermia Frostbite
Causes of hypothermia can include ________. a) overexposure to cold b) weather conditions, such as wind-chill, improper clothing, submersion in cool water for an extended time c) inability to heat physical surroundings adequately d) all All
Hypothermia signs & symptoms, include _____. a) shivering, numbness, changes in pulse rate and breathing d) alert but with possible drowsiness, decreased muscle function f) sluggish pupils, altered mental status, bluish skin, cardiac arrest j) all All
______ consider a hypothermic patient deceased until the patient is warmed in an appropriate medical facility. Continue to care for the patient until EMS relieves you. a) Always b) Depend of the situation c) Never d) All Never
________, is the freezing or near freezing of a body part. a) Hypothermia b) Hypothermia and frostbite c) Frostbite or local cold injury d) Hyperthermia Frostbite or local cold injury
Frostbite usually occurs in exposed body areas or areas with lower blood supply, such as a) ears b) nose c) fingertips d) toes e) all All
________ can cause loss of the affected areas. a) Hypothermia b) Hypothermia and frostbite c) Frostbite d) Hyperthermia Frostbite
Signs and symptoms of frostbite include __________. a) skin that remains soft and turns very pale when touched b) affected area that tingles as it re-warms c) affected person losing feeling or sensation d) all All
Heat-related emergencies can occur from loss of fluids and salts through heavy sweating. a) TRUE b) FALSE TRUE
_______ occurs when the body cannot recover from this fluid loss. a) Hypothermia b) Hypothermia and frostbite c) Frostbite d) Hyperthermia Hyperthermia
Stages of hyperthermia _________. a) heat cramps b) heat exhaustion c) heatstroke d) all All
Signs & symptoms of heat-related emergencies include: cramps in legs, arms, or abdominal muscles, weakness, exhaustion, dizziness, fainting, strong, rapid pulse that weakens as damage progresses, as well as: Headache, appetite loss, vomiting, altered mental state or unresponsiveness, seizures , moist, cool skin during the heat cramps or heat exhaustion stage, hot, dry skin during the heatstroke stage
____ is a sign of a life-threatening emergency that requires prompt EMS transport a) Weakness, exhaustion b) Hot, dry skin during heatstroke stage c) Strong, rapid pulse that weakens as damage progresses d) Altered mental state or unresponsiveness Hot, dry skin during the heatstroke stage
Localized or radiating abdominal pain, anxiety, reluctance to move, loss of appetite, nausea and vomiting, fever, abdominal distention, patient in fetal position, signs of shock are signs & symptoms of ____. a) heart attack b) abdominal pains c) stroke Abdominal pains
_______ are substances that may cause an allergic reaction, injury, or death if introduced into the body. a) Poisons b) Absorption pills c) Chemicals d) Overdose Poisons
Poisons can be solids, liquids, or gases that enter the body through _______. a) ingestion b) inhalation c) injection d) absorption. e) all All
Poisoning by _________ occurs when poison enters the body through the mouth. a) ingestion b) inhalation c) injection d) absorption e) all Ingestion
Burns around the mouth, odd breath odor, nausea, vomiting, stomach pains, diarrhea, altered mental status, breathing difficulty and seizures are signs and symptoms of poisoning by _________. a) ingestion b) inhalation c) injection d) absorption. e) all Ingestion
Poisoning by _________ occurs when poison enters the body through the mouth and/or nose. a) ingestion b) inhalation c) injection d) absorption e) all Inhalation
Possible examples of inhaled poisons include by-products of___________. a) fire b) cyanide c) carbon monoxide (CO) d) chlorine e) Other gases f) all All
Breathing difficulty/chest pain, cough and/or burning sensation in throat, cyanosis, dizziness, confusion, seizures, unresponsiveness, & reddening around the mouth (late sign) are signs & symptoms of poisoning by __________. a) ingestion b) inhalation Inhalation
Poisoning by ________ occurs when poison is inserted into the body through a small opening in the skin. a) ingestion b) inhalation c) injection d) absorption e) all Injection
Sources of poisoning by _________ may include bites, stings, and toxic injections. a) ingestion b) inhalation c) injection d) absorption e) all Injection
Bite/sting mark, stinger/tentacle, or venom sac that remains in the skin, redness at/around entry site, swelling at/around entry site, pain/tenderness at/around entry site are signs & symptoms of poisoning by: a) ingestion b) inhalation c) injection Injection
Poisoning by ________ occurs when poison enters the body through contact with the surface of the skin. a) ingestion b) inhalation c) injection d) absorption e) all Absorption
Sources of poisoning by __________ can be poisonous plants such as poison ivy, poison sumac, poison oak, poison wood, etc., corrosives, insecticides, and herbicides, and cleaning products. a) ingestion b) inhalation c) injection d) absorption e) all Absorption
Liquid or powder on skin, burns, itching and/or irritation, redness/rash, & blistering, shock, dizziness, nausea, vomiting, convulsions or seizures are signs & symptoms of poisoning _____. a) ingestion b) inhalation c) injection d) absorption Absorption
Many people have ________ to substances in the venom of bees, wasps, hornets, and yellow jackets. a) hypersensitization b) allergies c) physical reaction d) severe allergies Severe allergies
When stung, highly allergic people need immediate medical care for ________, a severe allergic reaction in which air passages swell and restrict breathing. a) anaphylaxis b) Neurogenic shock c) Psychogenesis shock d) Hypovolemic shock Anaphylaxis
Signs and symptoms of an insect bite or sting, as observed in patient assessment, are similar to those of _______ poison.a ) inhaled b) absorbed c) injected d) inhaled Injected
What is the preferred way to remove stinger in skin from an insect? a) Using tweezers b) Knife c) Scrape the stinger away from the skin with the edge of a plastic card held at an angle d) Fingernail clippers Scrape the stinger away from the skin with the edge of a plastic card held at an angle
_________ venom contains some of the most complex poisons known. a) Scorpions b) Bees c) Snakes d) African honeybees Snakes
Snake poisons can affect the _______. a) central nervous system b) heart c) kidneys d) blood e) all All
_________, results from insect bites or stings, medications, pollen, foods, chemicals, or any substance that triggers an allergic reaction. a) Coma b) Drug overdose c) Anaphylactic shock or anaphylaxis d) Excited delirium Anaphylactic shock or anaphylaxis
Anaphylactic shock is a life-threatening emergency! Reaction can occur within _______ after a sting, ingestion, or exposure. a) hours b) minutes c) seconds d) days Seconds
The more quickly signs and symptoms appear, the greater the risk of fatality. a) Coma b) Drug overdose c) Anaphylactic shock or anaphylaxis d) Excited delirium Anaphylactic shock or anaphylaxis
Signs & symptoms of anaphylactic shock may include: warm, tingling feeling in the mouth/face/chest/feet/hands, itching skin & hives, swollen eyes/hands/feet, cyanosis, paleness, cough, swollen mouth, tongue, or throat that obstructs the airway as well as: Painful/squeezing sensation in chest, whistling sound prior loss of voice, rapid/labored/noisy/wheezing/breathing, dizziness, cough, increased heart rate, restlessness, itchy, watery eyes/headache/runny nose, sense impending doom, decreasing mental status
A ______ is an emergency that involves poisoning by legal or illegal drugs. a) coma b) drug overdose c) anaphylactic shock d) excited delirium Drug overdose
Most drug overdoses involve drug abuse by long-time users. A drug overdose can also result from _________. a) accident b) miscalculation c) confusion d) use of more than one drug e) suicide attempt f) all All
An overdose occurs when someone uses an excessive amount of a substance. It causes adverse reactions ranging from excited delirium to ________. a) coma and death b) drug overdose c) anaphylactic shock d) excited delirium Coma and death
The most reliable indications of a _______ come from the scene and patient history. a) coma b) drug overdose c) death d) excited delirium Drug overdose
Unresponsiveness, breathing difficulty, abnormal pulse, fever, vomiting, convulsions or seizures, sweating, tremors, abnormal pupil reactions, blurred vision,. These are the signs and symptoms of an _____. a) drug overdose b) coma c) excited delirium Drug overdose
Slurred speech, muscle spasms, signs of illicit drug use, combativeness, extraordinary strength, endurance without fatigue. These are the signs and symptoms of ________. a) drug overdose b) coma c) excited delirium Drug overdose
Sudden tranquility after frenzied activity, paranoia, memory loss, hallucinations, altered mental status/abnormal behavior. These are the signs and symptoms of ________.a) drug overdose b) coma c) excited delirium Drug overdose
________ is neither a medical nor a psychiatric condition. a) Coma b) Drug overdose c) Anaphylactic shock or anaphylaxis d) Excited delirium Excited delirium
In most cases, the force required to subdue the suspect was not sufficient to cause death. Medical authorities have typically had extreme difficulty identifying cause of death. a) Drug overdose b) Anaphylactic shock/anaphylaxis c) Excited delirium Excited delirium
Unbelievable strength/imperviousness to pain, hyperthermia, sweating, shedding clothes or nudity, bizarre and violent behavior, aggression, attraction to glass, foaming at the mouth/drooling, dilated pupils. These are the signs and symptoms of _____. Excited delirium
The method for dealing with suspected ____ is to provide medical treatment to the individual according to substance abuse procedures & be aware of positional asphyxia. a) coma b) drug overdose c) anaphylactic shock/anaphylaxis d) excited delirium Excited delirium
Created by: goarmy on 2010-08-06



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