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182 Chps 41,42,33,40

worktest questions for Unit 3

Individuals whose diet consists primarily of corn would likely become: A) malnourished B) overnourished C) undernourished D) anorexic E) obese (41-2) A
Which of the following is a fat-soluble vitamin? A) vitamin C B) calcium C) iodine D) vitamin B-12 E) vitamin A (41-3) E
Which of the following minerals is associated with its use in animals? A) sulfur-ingredient in nucleic acids B) magnesium-cofactor in enzymes that make ATP C) calcium-construction and maintenance of bone D) iodine-important in nerve function E) iron-necessary for thyroid function (41-4) C
During the process of digestion, fats are broken down when fatty acids are detached from glycerol. In addition, proteins are digested to yield amino acids. What do these two processes have in common? A) both require the presence of HCl to lower the pH B) catalyzed by the same enzyme C) involve the addition of a water molecule to break bonds (hydrolysis) D) each requires ATP as an energy source E) both occur intracellularly in most organisms (41-5) C
Increasing the surface area directly facilitates which of the following digestive processes? A) elimination B) absorption C) hydrolysis D) A and B only E) A,B, and C (41-6) D
Which of the following is an advantage of a complete digestive system over a gastrovascular cavity? A) specialized regions are possible B) extensive branching is possible C) digestive enzymes can be more specific D) extracellular digestion is not needed E) intracellular digestion is easier (41-7) A
See table in worktest 41: Some of the vitamins and minerals in this supplement are found at less than 100%. Which is the most likely explanation? A) these vitamins and minerals are easily obtained in other food sources B) it's dangerous to OD on vitamins such as A and K C) it's too easy to OD on minerals such as phosphorus,iron,calcium D) too expensive to add more E) supplement meant for those who have been deprived of healthy foods (41-8) B
See table in worktest 41: After careful examination of the table, which of the following groups would you expect to benefit most from this supplement? A) infants B) the immunosuppressed C) senior citizens D) women of menstruating ages E) pregnant women (41-9) C
Foods eaten by animals are most often composed largely of macromolecules. This requires the animals to have methods for which of the following? A) dehydration synthesis B) demineralization C) regurgitation D) elimination E) enzymatic hydrolysis (41-10) E
After ingestion, the first type of macromolecule to be worked on by enzymes in the human digestive system is: A) glucose B) protein C) carbohydrate D) nucleic acid E) cholesterol (41-11) C
Which of the following statements is true of mammals? A) enzyme production continues in the esophagus B) after leaving the oral cavity, the bolus enters the larynx C) the trachea leads to the esophagus and then to the stomach D) all foods begin their enzymatic digestion in the mouth E) the epiglottis prevents food from entering the trachea (41-12) E
What part(s) of the digestive system have secretions with a pH of 2? A) stomach B) mouth C) pancreas D) liver E) small intestine (41-13) A
Which of the following statements describes pepsin? A) it helps stabilize fat-water emulsions B) it splits maltose into monosaccharides C) it is manufactured by the pancreas D) it is denatured and rendered inactive in solutions with low pH E) it begins the hydrolysis of proteins in the stomach (41-14) E
Which of the following is true of bile salts? A) they are manufactured by the pancreas B) they are normally an ingredient of gastric juice C) they emulsify fats in the duodenum D) they are enzymes E) they increase the efficiency of pepsin action (41-15) C
Most nutrients absorbed into the lymph or bloodstream are in which form? A) disaccharides B) polymers C) peptides D) enzymes E) monomers (41-16) E
In which blood vessel is glucose concentration likely to vary the most? A) hepatic vein, which drains the liver B) coronary arteries C) abdominal artery D) pulmonary veins E) hepatic portal vessel (41-17) E
Numerous adult humans are currently treated for reflux disorders. However, at an earlier time these same individuals would have been diagnosed with gastric ulcers. Which of the following has most contributed to correct diagnosis of this problem? A) improvements in X-ray technology B) better pH monitoring C) ability to diagnose and treat H. pylori infection D) ability to perform sonography E) ability to perform colonoscopy (41-18) C
How does the digestion and absorption of fat differ from that of carbohydrates? A) carbs need to be emulsified before they can be digested B) most absorbed fat first enters the lymphatic system, whereas carbs directly enter the blood C) fat absorption occurs in the stomach, carbs absorbed from the small intestine D) only fat must be worked on by bacteria in the large intestine before it can be absorbed E) processing of fat doesn't require any digestive enzymes (41-19) B
A hiatal hernia affects the function of the smooth muscle between the esophagus and the stomach. The hernia would be most likely to increase the frequency of which of the following? A) premature entry of food into the duodenum B) gastric reflux C) excess secretion of pepsinogen D) retention of food in the stomach E) increased stomach pH (41-20) B
Bacteria are beneficial to animal nutrition, including that of humans. Which of the following is among their greatest benefits to us? A) absorption of organic materials B) production of vitamins A and C C) recovery of water from fecal matter D) generation of gases needed for elimination E) production of biotin and vitamin K (41-21) E
In which group of animals would you expect to find a relatively long cecum? A) herbivores B) autotrophs C) heterotrophs D) carnivores E) omnivores (41-22) A
Microbial symbionts are especially important for nutritional support in which of the following? A) carnivores and omnivores B) animals without an esophagus C) animals with large stomach and short intestines D) herbivores and omnivores E) herbivores and carnivores (41-23) D
See paragraph in worktest 41: Leptin is a product of adipose cells. Therefore, a very obese mouse would be expected to have which of the following? A) increased gene expression of db and decreased expression of ob B) increased gene expression of ob and decreased expression of db C) mutation of ob or db D) decreased transcription of both ob and db (41-24) C
Which of the following animals is incorrectly paired with its feeding mechanism? A) lion-substrate feeder B) clam-suspension feeder C) baleen whale-suspension feeder D) snake-bulk feeder E) aphid-fluid feeder (41-25) A
Similar fusiform body shapes are seen in sharks, penguins, and aquatic mammals because: A) natural selection has no limits when different organisms face the same challenge B) the fusiform shape is coded by the same gene in all three types of animals C) respiration through gills is enhanced by having a fusiform shape D) the laws of physics constrain the shapes that are possible for aquatic animals that swim very fast E) all 3 types evolved from ancestral forms that fly in the air (40-1) D
All animals, whether large or small, have: A) all of their living cells surrounded by an aqueous medium B) a basic body plan that resembles a two-layered sac C) the ability to enter dormancy when resources become scarce D) a body surface covered with hair to keep them warm E) an external body surface that is dry (40-2) A
As body size increases in animals, there is: A) a decrease in the surface-to-volume ratio B) the tendency for larger bodies to be more variable in metabolic rate C) an increase in migration to tropical areas D) no further reproduction in aqueous environments E) a greater challenge to maintaining body warmth in cold environments (40-3) A
To increase the effectiveness of exchange surfaces in the lungs and in the intestines, evolutionary pressures have: A) increased the volume of the cells in the linings B) increased the number of cell layers C) increased the surface area available for exchange D) increased the thickness of the linings E) decreased the metabolic rate of cells in the linings (40-4) C
Multicellular organisms must keep their cells awash in an "internal pond" because: A) feedback signals cannot cross through the interstitial fluid B) this prevents the movement of water due to osmosis C) terrestrial organisms have not adapted to life in dry environments D) cells need an aqueous medium for the exchange of nutrients, gases, and wastes E) cells need to be protected from nitrogen gas in the atmosphere (40-5) D
An exchange surface is in direct contact with the external environment in the: A) lungs B) heart C) liver D) skeletal muscles E) brain (40-6) A
The epithelium type with the shortest diffusion distance is: A) simple cuboidal epithelium B) stratified squamous epithelium C) simple squamous epithelium D) simple columnar epithelium E) pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium (40-7) C
Stratified cuboidal epithelium is composed of: A) several layers of box-like cells B) a hierarchical arrangement of flat cells C) a tight layer of square cells attached to a basement membrane D) a layer of ciliated, mucus-secreting cells E)an irregularly arranged layer of pillar-like cells (40-8) A
If you gently twist your ear lobe it does not remain distorted because it contains: A) reticular fibers B) loose connective tissue C) collagenous fibers D) adipose tissue E) elastin fibers (40-9) E
Fibroblasts secrete: A) interstitial fluids B) fats C) proteins for connective fibers D) chondroitin sulfate E) calcium phosphate for bone (40-10) C
Blood is best classified as connective tissue because: A) its cells can be separated from each other by an extracellular matrix B) it is found within all the organs of the body C) it is contained in vessels that "connect" different parts of an organism's body D) it contains more than one type of cell E) its cells can move from place to place (40-11) A
A matrix of connective tissue is apparent in: A) spindle-shaped smooth muscle cells B) chondroitin sulfate of cartilage C) adipose deposits D) actin and myosin of muscle E) nervous tissues (40-12) B
Muscles are joined to bones by: A) tendons B) loose connective tissue C) ligaments D) spindle fibers E) Haversian systems (40-13) A
Bones are held together at joints by: A) ligaments B) osteons C) loose connective tissue D) cartilage E) tendons (40-14) A
The nucleus of a typical nerve cell is found in the: A) dendritic region B) cell body C) axonal region D) synaptic terminals E) synapse (40-15) B
All skeletal muscle fibers are both: A) smooth and unbranched B) striated and voluntary C) smooth and voluntary D) striated and branched E) smooth and involuntary (40-16) B
Cardiac muscle is both: A) striated and branched B) smooth and involuntary C) striated and unbranched D) striated and voluntary E) smooth and voluntary (40-17) A
Food moves along the digestive tract as the result of contractions by: A) voluntary muscles B) striated muscles C) skeletal muscles D) smooth muscles E) cardiac muscles (40-18) D
The cells lining the air sacs in the lungs make up a: A) simple squamous epithelium B) simple columnar epithelium C) pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium D) cuboidal epithelium E) stratified squamous epithelium (40-19) A
An example of a properly functioning homeostatic control system is seen when: A) blood pressure increases in response to an increase in blood volume B) a blood cell shrinks when placed in a salt water solution C) kidneys excrete salt into the urine when dietary salt levels rise D) a runner's core body temp. rises gradually from 37 to 45 E) blood glucose level is high whether or not a meal has been eaten (40-20) C
Positive feedback differs from negative feedback in that: A) + feedback systems have only effectors, whereas - feedback systems have only receptors B) + feedback benefits the organism, - feedback is detrimental C) the effector's response in + feedback is in the same direction as the initiating stimulus rather than opposite D) the effector's response increases some parameter, whereas in - it decreases E) + have control centers that are lacking in - (40-21) C
To prepare flight muscles for use on a cool morning, hawkmouth moths: A) rapidly contract and relax these muscles to generate metabolic warmth B) relax the muscles completely until after they launch themselves into the air C) decrease their standard metabolic rate D) reduce the metabolic rate of the muscles to rest them before flight E) walk to shaded areas to avoid direct sunlight (40-22) A
Humans can lose, but cannot gain, heat through the process of: A) convection B) conduction C) evaporation D) radiation E) metabolism (40-23) C
An organism that has only behavioral controls over its body temperature is the: A) penguin B) house sparrow C) green frog D) gray wolf E) bluefin tuna (40-24) C
Most amphibians and land-dwelling invertebrates: A) have a net loss of heat across a moist body surface, even in direct sun B) are thermoconformers only when in water C) alter their metabolic rate to maintain a constant body temp of 37 D) are ectothermic organisms E) become more active when environmental temps drop below 15 (40-25) D
Ingested foods in snakes are typically digested by: A) chemiosmosis B) biosynthesis C) metabolic heat D) enzymatic hydrolysis E) uric acid (40-26) D
For an adult human female, the metabolic "costs" of pregnancy and lactation are: A) 30-40% more than when she was non-pregnant B) 30-40% less than when she was non-pregnant C) 10-20% less than when she was non-pregnant D) 5-8% more than when she was non-pregnant E) 100-125% more than when she was non-pregnant (40-27) D
"Winter acclimatization" in mammals can include: A) production of enzymes that have lower temperature optima B) hibernation through the season of extreme cold C) production of antifreeze compounds within cells D) changing the proportion of saturated and unsaturated fats in cell membranes E) denaturation of proteins that can't withstand extreme temps (40-28) B
The epithelium best adapted for a body surface subject to abrasion is: A) stratified columnar B) simple squamous C) simple cuboidal D) simple columnar E) stratified squamous (40-29) E
An animal's inputs of energy and materials would exceed its outputs: A) never; homeostasis makes these energy and material budgets always balance B) if it is actively foraging for food C) if it is hibernating D) if it is growing and increasing its biomass E) if it is an endotherm, which must take in more energy due to its high metabolic rate (40-30) D
Which cells in a sponge are primarily responsible for trapping and removing food particles from circulating water? A) mesoglea cells B) pore cells (porocytes) C) epidermal cells D) choanocytes (33-1) D
A radially symmetrically animal that has two embryonic tissue layers probably belongs to which phylum? A) Cnidaria B) Porifera C) Platyhelminthes D) Nematoda E) Echinodermata (33-2) A
The members of which class of the phylum Cnidaria occur only as polyps? A) Scyphozoa B) Hydrozoa C) Cubozoa D) Anthozoa E) both B and D (33-3) D
Corals are most closely related to which group? A) jellies B) sea anemones C) freshwater hydras D) barnacles E) sponges (33-4) B
Which characteristic is shared by both cnidarians and flatworms? A) dorsoventrally flattened bodies B) a digestive system with a single opening C) flame bulbs D) radial symmetry E) both A and D (33-5) B
What would be the most effective method of reducing the incidence of blood flukes in a human population? A) purify all drinking water B) avoid contact with rodent droppings C) carefully wash all raw fruits and vegetables D) reduce the mosquito population E) reduce the freshwater snail population (33-6) E
A student ate undercooked ground beef. Sometime later he became easily fatigued and lost body weight. Whitish, flattened, rectangular objects full of small white sphere started appearing in his feces. Niclosamide cured the problem. He was infected by: A) proboscis worm B) pinworm C) nematode D) tapeworm E) hookworm (33-7) D
A student rears some fertilized eggs and finds that the blastopore becomes the mouth. The embryo develops into a trochophore larva and eventually has true coelem. These eggs probably belonged to a: A) echinoderm B) chordate C) mollusc D) nematode E) arthropod (33-8) C
A lophophore is used by ectoprocts and brachiopods: A) as a skeletal system B) at a larval stage C) for feeding D) for sensory reception E) for locomotion (33-9) C
A terrestrial mollusc without a shell belongs to which class? A) cephalopods B) chitons C) gastropods D) bivalves (33-10) C
Which molluscan class includes marine organisms whose shell consists of eight plates? A) chitons B) gastropods C) bivalves D) cephalopods (33-11) A
Which molluscan class includes organisms that are primarily suspension feeders? A) bivalves B) cephalopods C) gastropods D) chitons (33-12) A
Many of which of the following annelid classes are parasites? A) Hirudinea (leeches) B) Oligochaeta C) Polychaeta D) all three of these E) two of these (33-13) A
Of the annelid classes below, which make castings that are agriculturally important? A) Polychaeta B) Oligochaeta C) Hirudinea (leeches) D) all three of these E) two of these (33-14) B
Some species of which of the following annelid classes release an anticoagulant that is of medical significance? A) Polychaeta B) Oligochaeta C) Hirudinea (leeches) D) all three of these E) two of these (33-15) C
Which of the following is a characteristic of nematodes? A) all species can be characterized either as scavengers or as decomposers B) they have only longitudinal muscles C) many species are diploblastic D) they have a gastrovascular cavity E) they have a true coelom (33-16) B
Humans most frequently acquire trichinosis by: A) being bitten by tsetse flies B) having sexual contact with an infected partner C) inhaling the eggs of worms D) eating undercooked pork E) eating undercooked beef (33-17) D
Nematode worms and annelid worms share which of the following features? A) presence of a circulatory system B) use of fluid in the body cavity as a hydrostatic skeleton C) presence of segmentation D) absence of species with parasitic lifestyles E) ecdysis (33-18) B
Infection with which parasite might cause excessive elasticity in human skeletal muscles? A) rotifers B) blood flukes C) tapeworms D) copepods E) trichinella worms (33-19) E
Which of the following are entirely, or partly, composed of calcium carbonate? A) insects' cuticles B) spicules of siliceous sponges C) coral animals' exoskeletons D) molluscs' mantles E) nematodes' cuticles (33-20) C
Among the invertebrate phyla, phylum Arthropoda is unique in possessing members that have: A) segmented bodies B) a ventral nerve cord C) a cuticle D) wings E) open circulation (33-21) D
Which of the following characteristics most likely explains why insects are so successful at dispersing to distant environments? A) wings B) internal fertilization C) jointed appendages D) chewing mandibles E) hemocoel (33-22) A
The possession of two pairs of antennae is a characteristic of: A) spiders B) insects C) crustaceans D) centipedes E) millipedes (33-23) C
Which of the following are elongated in the oral-aboral axis? A) class Ophiuroidea (brittle stars) B) class Crinoidea (sea lilies and feather stars) C) class Holothuroidea (sea cucumbers) D) class Echinoidea (sea urchins and sand dollars) E) class Asteroidea (sea stars) (33-24) C
Which of the following can have long, movable spines? A) class Crinoidea (sea lilies and feather stars) B) class Holothuroidea (sea cucumbers) C) class Ophiuroidea (brittle stars) D) class Echinoidea (sea urchins and sand dollars) E) class Asteroidea (sea stars) (33-25) D
An organism has a hard outer covering made of calcium carbonate, an open circulatory system, and gills. It could be a crab, a shrimp, a barnacle, or a bivalve. Which structure would allow for the most certain identification? A) a mantle B) eyes C) a heart D) a body cavity E) a lophophore (33-26) A
Protostomes that have an open circulatory system and an exoskeleton of chitin are part of which phylum? A) Mollusca B) Echinodermata C) Arthropoda D) Annelida E) Cnidaria (33-27) C
Protostomes with a unique drape of tissue that may secrete a shell are part of which phylum? A) Arthropoda B) Annelida C) Cnidaria D) Echinodermata E) Mollusca (33-28) E
Deuterostomes that have an endoskeleton are part of which phylum? A) Annelida B) Arthropoda C) Mollusca D) Cnidaria E) Echinodermata (33-29) E
Protostomes that have a closed circulatory system and obvious segmentation are part of which phylum? A) Mollusca B) Arthropoda C) Annelida D) Echinodermata E) Cnidaria (33-30) C
What would be expected if the amount of interstitial fluid surrounding the capillary beds of the lungs were to increase significantly? A) pressure would cause the capillary beds to burst B) amount of oxygen entering circulation from the lungs would decrease C) amount of oxygen entering circulation from the lungs would increase D) amount of CO2 entering the lungs from the blood would increase E) both C and D (42-1) B
In which animal does blood flow from the pulmocutaneous circulation to the heart before circulating through the rest of the body? A) insect B) frog C) annelid D) mollusc E) fish (42-2) B
Which of the following are the only vertebrates in which blood flows directly from respiratory organs to body tissues without first returning to the heart? A) mammals B) birds C) reptiles D) fishes E) amphibians (42-3) D
To adjust blood pressure independently in the capillaries of the gas-exchange surface and in the capillaries of the general body circulation, an organism would need a(n): A) hemocoel B) four-chambered heart C) lymphatic system D) two-chambered heart E) open circulatory system (42-4) B
An organism has a large, well-formed, most likely 4-chambered heart, with no connection between the right and left sides. Which of the following could most reasonably be hypothesized from this observation? A) it was a kind of invertebrate B) it had a high energy requirement & was endothermic C) it had evolved from birds D) it was most closely related to reptiles such as alligators E) the species had little need to regulate blood pressure (42-5) B
Which of the following would be described as a portal system? A) series of vessels that return blood to the heart in an animal with an open circulatory system B) slightly muscular vessel that has minimal pumping action in an organism with no heart C) area connecting arterioles to venules D) vessels connecting two capillary beds E) space within/between organs where blood is allowed to pool (42-6) D
A human red blood cell in an artery of the left arm is on its way to deliver oxygen to a cell in the thumb. From this point in the artery, how many capillary beds must this red blood cell pass through before it returns to the left ventricle of the heart? A) one B) two C) three D) four E) five (42-7) B
Which sequence of blood flow can be observed in either a reptile or a mammal? A) pulmonary vein -> L atrium -> ventricle -> pulmonary circuit B) vena cava -> R atrium -> ventricle -> pulmonary circuit C) R ventricle -> pulmonary vein -> pulmocutaneous circulation D) L ventricle -> aorta -> lungs -> systemic circulation E) R atrium -> pulmonary artery -> L atrium -> ventricle (42-8) B
Where are semilunar valves to be found in the mammalian heart? A) where blood leaves via the aorta and pulmonary arteries B) where blood goes from atria to ventricles C) where anterior and posterior vena cavae enter D) on the right side of the heart only E) where the pulmonary veins attach to the heart (42-9) A
Why is the velocity of blood flow the lowest in capillaries? A)capillaries are far from the heart, and blood flow slows as distance from the heart increases B) total surface area of capillaries is greater than that of the arterioles C) systemic capillaries are supplied by the L ventricle, which has a lower cardiac output D) diastolic BP is too low to deliver blood to the capillaries at a high flow rate E) capillary walls aren't thin enough to allow oxygen exchange (42-10) B
Average blood pressure is lowest in which structure? A) arteries B) arterioles C) the aorta D) capillaries E) venae cavae (42-11) E
Which of the following is correct for a blood pressure reading of 130/80? I. the systolic pressure is 130 II. the diastolic pressure is 80 III. the blood pressure during heart contraction is 80 A) II and III B) I only C) III only D) I and II E) I,II,and III D
What is the reason that fluid is forced from the bloodstream to the surrounding tissues at the arteriole end of systemic capillaries? A) osmotic pressure of blood > hydrostatic pressure of interstitial fluid B) hydro. pressure of blood < hydro. of inter. fluid C) hydro. pressure of blood > osmotic pressure of inter. fluid D) osmotic pressure of interstitial fluid > hydro. pressure of blood E) osmotic pressure of interstitial fluid > osm. of blood (42-13) C
If, during protein starvation, the osmotic pressure on the venous side of capillary beds drops below the hydrostatic pressure, then: A) plasma proteins will escape through capillary endothelium B) pH of the interstitial fluids will increase C)most CO2 will be bound to hemoglobin and carried away from tissues D)fluids will accumulate in tissues E)hemoglobin won't release oxygen (42- D
A blood vessel has the following characteristics: outer layer of connective tissue, a thick layer of smooth muscle with elastic fibers, no valves. It is which of the following? A) an artery B) a portal vessel C) a venule D) a vein E) a capillary (42-15) A
Which of the following is used to diagnose hypertension in adults? A) blood pressure of >140 systolic and >90 diastolic B) # of leukocytes per mm^3 of blood C) measurement of fatty deposits on artery endothelium D) measurement of the LDL/HDL ratio in peripheral blood E) % of blood volume made up of platelets (42-16) A
Which of the following is a function of plasma proteins in humans? A) maintenance of blood osmotic pressure B) aerobic metabolism C) gas exchange D) oxygen transport E) transport of water-soluble lipids (42-17) A
Cyanide acts as a mitochondrial poison. What will happen to human red blood cells if they are placed in a solution containing cyanide? A) cells will lyse as cyanide conc. increases in the cell B) cells will switch to anaerobic metabolism C) cells will be unaffected D) the cells won't be able to carry oxygen E) cell shape will be maintained but mitochondria will be poisoned (42-18) C
Which of these speed up heart rate? A) erythropoietin B) epinephrine C) immunoglobulins D) low-density lipoproteins E) platelets (42-19) B
Which of the following is a normal event in the process of blood clotting? A) conversion of fibrin to fibrinogen B) clotting factor formation C) production of erythropoietin D) activation of prothrombin to thrombin E) increase in platelets (42-20) D (E)
Why is gas exchange more difficult for aquatic animals with gills than for terrestrial animals with lungs? A) water contains less O2 per unit volume B) gills have less surface area C) gills allow water to flow in one direction D) gills allow only unidirectional transport E) water is less dense than air (42-21) A
Which of the following is an example of countercurrent exchange? A) flow of water across gills and blood within those gills B) flow of water across frogs' skin and of blood within ventricle C) flow of air within bronchi and blood within veins D) flow of blood in dorsal vessel and air in tracheae E) flow of fluid out of arteriole capillary and back in venous (42-22) A
Which of the following occurs with the exhalation of air from human lungs? A) epiglottis closes B) volume of thoracic cavity decreases C) rib cage expands D) residual volume of lungs decreases E) diaphragm contracts (42-23) B
Why is the respiratory system of a bird more efficient than the human respiratory system? A) birds contain multiple alveoli: increases surface area B) bird doesn't mix inhaled and exhaled air C) human ends in small parabronchi: reduce surface area D) B and C E) A,B,and C (42-24) B
Breathing is usually regulated by: A) erythropoietin levels in the blood B) the lungs and the larynx C) CO2 and O2 conc. and pH-level sensors D) conc. of red blood cells E) hemoglobin levels in the blood (42-25) C
The Bohr shift on the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve is produced by changes in: A) the partial pressure of CO B) pH C) temperature D) hemoglobin conc. E) partial pressure of oxygen (42-26) B
How is most of the CO2 transported by the blood in humans? A) CO2 dissolved in the plasma B) bicarbonate ions in the plasma C) bicarbonate attached to hemoglobin D) CO2 attached to hemoglobin E) carbonic acid in the erythrocytes (42-27) B
How does the hemocyanin of arthropods and molluscs differ from the hemoglobin of mammals? A) hemocyanin carries more CO2 B) protein of hemocyanin is not bound to metal C) oxygen dissociation curve for hemocyanin is linear D) hemocyanin includes cyanic acid E) hemocyanin has protein coupled to Copper rather than iron (42-28) E
Which of the following respiratory systems is not closely associated with a blood supply? A) the lungs of a vertebrate B) the parapodia of a polychaete worm C) the tracheal system of an insect D) the skin of an earthworm E) the gills of a fish (42-29) C
Blood returning to the mammalian heart in a pulmonary vein drains first into the: A) left atrium B) right atrium C) left ventricle D) vena cava E) right ventricle (42-30) A
The body is capable of catabolizing many substances as sources of energy. Which of the following would be used as an energy source only after the depletion of other sources? A) fat in adipose tissue B) calcium phosphate in bone C) glucose in the blood D) protein in muscle cells E) glycogen in muscle cells (41-1) D
Created by: hermionepippin on 2009-06-30

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