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AE Embraer Review #1

AOM 2 Review: General

Question	Answer
What are the dimensions of the EMB-145 ? Gen	L 98' x W 65' 9" x H 22' 2" Gen 1
How many fire extinguishers are there in the tail cone? Gen	Two for the engines, 1 for the APU. Gen 1
What are the dimensions of the 140 and 135? Gen	94' and 87', the width and height are the same as the 145. (notes)
What are the turning radii of the 145, 140 and 135? Gen	70', 66' and 61'. (notes)
If the poilot seat height adjustment motor fails, how can the height be adjusted? Gen	Via a manual crank under the pilot's seat, the handle is stowed under the seat the connector is in back. Gen 9
Can the rudder pedals be manually cranked by you if the motor fails? Gen	No, the adjustment must be done by maintenance via the rigging hatch. Gen 10
How can you tell if the DV window is not fully closed? Gen	A yellow pin protrudes from the handle and "window not closed" is visible on the forward edge of the window. Gen 10
What is the max airspeed a DV window can be opened? Gen	140 Kts. (notes)
How is the lav sink drained? Gen	Via gravity. Gen 22
What prevents ice from forming at the lav sink drain? Gen	The drain is heated whenever DC Bus 1 is energized. Gen 22
How is the lav motor powered? Gen	Electrically. Gen 22
How can the aircraft main and service doors be verified that they are closed other than the TO page? Gen	Red marks on the door locking pins. Gen 24
What direction must the cargo door handle be turned in order to open it? Gen	Clockwise. Gen 29
What doors are plug type? Gen	Main cabin door, service door, baggage door, rear electronics bay access hatch, rigging hatch and the overwing emergency exits. (notes)
What access hatches will generate an "access doors open" on the EICAS? Gen	Forward avionics, rigging and rear electronics bay hatches. Gen 38
How many passengers does the 145, 140 and 135 carry? Gen	50, 44, and 37 plus 4 crew. (notes)
What is the airspeed of an unladen swallow? MP:THG	African or European? MP:THG
What does the pneumatic system use air for? Air	Ice protection, air conditioning, pressurization and engine startng. Air 1
Where does compressed air come from for the pneumatic system? Air	9th or 14th stage air from the engines, APU or a ground source . Air 1
What engine bleed stages have a BACV? Air	Both. Air 4, diagram
How many questions does the bridge keeper ask? MP:THG	Answer me these questions three. MP:THG
When does the HSV (high stage valve) automatically open? Air	Low engine thrust, cross bleed starts and anti-icing operations. Air 1
Where does the engine inlet anti-icing get its hot air from? Air	A high pressure bleed tapping upstream of the HSV. Air 1
How are the pneumatic system valves controlled and moved? Air	They are electrically controlled and pneumatically actuated. Air 1
Other than the Bleed 1/2 button, how can the EBV be closed? Air	Pull the associated fire handle. Air 2
Will the PRSOV (pressure regulating shutoff valves) be open during takeoff with anti-ice and packs selected off? Air	No. They only open when air is required. Air 2
When will the EBV PRSOV open both HSVs and shut off 1 pack? Air	Below 24,600' when icing conditions are encountered. Air 2
When 1 pack is inoperative and icing is encountered at FL250, will the EBV PRSOV shut off the remaining pack? Air	No. Air 2
Where does the horizontal stabilizer get anti-icing air from? Air	The left side of the pneumatic system. Air 2
Can the APU be used for anti-icing? Air	No, due to low thermal capacity. Air 2
Which air source has a check valve, the APU or the high pressure ground connection? Air	Both do. Air 2 - 3
How are the ECUs (environmental control unit) cooled in flight and on the ground? Air	ACM (air cycle machine) cooling fans and ram air in flight, ACM fans only while on the ground. Air 5
When emergency ventilation is needed, where does the air come from? Air	Impact air is drawn from the same inlets used to cool the heat exchangers, the air can be used to remove smoke or provide fresh air if the aircraft is depressurized in flight. Air 6
If both packs are operational below 24,600', which pack will the pneumatic system automatically shut off if icing conditions are encountered? Air	The left pack. Air 7
If maximum takeoff thrust is used, when will the ECS automatically shut off? Air	One engine inoperative - up to 9,700' PA and TAT 19C (SL) decreasing to -5C linearly at 9,700'. Both engines - up to 1700' PA and TAT 19C (SL) decreasing to -5C linearly at 9,700'. Air 7
If the APU is operating the packs, will the ECS off logic shut off the packs when using maximum takeoff thrust? Air	No. Air 7
What are the temperature limits of the Air conditioning system's automatic mode? Air	18-29C Air 10
Where does the gasper system provide air to other than the individual air outlets? Air	The rear electronics compartment, the cockpit 02 cyinder, and the relay box. Air 10
How many subsystems are in the CPCS (cabin pressure control system)? Air	2, one digital electropneumatic (auto), one pneumatic (manual). Air 11
Do the electropneumatic and pneumatic outflow valves operate independently in the auto mode? Air	No, they are slaved. Air 11
What position do the outflow valves default to? Air	They are spring loaded closed. Air 11
What do the outflow valves use to actuate? Air	Vacuum pressure from an ejector pump driven by the bleed air system. Air 11
When is positive cabin differential relief provided? Air	Above 8.1 PSI Air 11
When is negative cabin pressure relief provided? Air	Below -0.3 PSI Air 11
What is the cabin altitued limitation in auto mode? Air	15,000' maximum. Air 11
What is the cabin altitude limit when in the manual mode? Air	There is no limit. Air 11
When does the CPAM (cabin pressurization acquisition module) send a signal to the aural warning system? Air	When the cabin altitude is above 9,900' +/-100'. Air 12
When does the cabin altitude indication on the EICAS turn red? Air	At or above 10,000' cabin altitude. Air 12
When does the EICAS cabin differential pressure indication turn red? Amber? Air	Red for 8.4 PSI and above, amber for 8.0 to 8.3 PSI. Air 12
If you fail to enter the landing altitude in the digital pressurization controller, what altitude will it default to? Air	8000' Air 14
When is the automatic pressurization sequence started? Air	When the #1 thrust lever is advanced to the thrust set position. Air 14
When the automatic pressurization sequence is started on the ground, what does the cabin pressurize to? Air	0.2 PSI below the takeoff altitude. Air 14
Why did a moose bite my sister? MP:THG	She was carving her initials on the moose with the sharpened end of an interspace toothbrush given by Svenge, her brother-in-law, an Oslo dentist and star of many Norwegian movies. MP:THG
How long does the takeoff sequence last? Air	15 minutes or when the theoretical altitude becomes greater than the cabin altitude. Air 15
What are the cabin altitude rates limited to? Air	650 FPM climb, 450 FPM descent. The descent rate may increase to 1300 FPM if the aircraft is descending faster than 2000 FPM. Air 16
What altitude does the aircraft pressurize to for landing? Air	300' below landing altitude. Air 16
What position should the manual pressurzation control knob be placed in to use the manual mode? Air	1 o'clock position. Air 16
When do the forward electronics bay fans turn on? Air	75F Air 17
At what temperature does the forward electronics bay generate an EICAS message? Air	71C Air 17
How is the rear electronics bay cooled in flight? Air	Conditioned air discharged from the pasenger cabin. Air 17
How is the rear electronics bay cooled on the ground? Air	A gasper air outlet blows air towards the compartment. Air 17
What did the witch allegedly turn a villager into? MP:THG	A newt. MP:THG (he got better...)
How is the baggage compartment ventilated? Air	Passenger cabin air. Air 18
What prevents baggage compartment smoke or extinguishing agent from getting into the passenger or rear electronics compartments? Air	Two check valves. Air 18
Can the gasper fans be shut off on the ground? Air	No, the can be selected off in flight only. Air 19
When does the cross bleed valve open automatically? Air	Cross bleed start, APU starting an engine, ice condition, ground air starting an engine. (notes)
How much fuel does shutting off the APU bleed save? Air	40% lower fuel burn. Air 20
If power has been lost to the automatic pressurization module and you must use the manual mode, will the MAN button illuminate when pressed? Air	No. Air 23
When "DUMP" is pressed in the auto mode, what will the cabin depressurize to? Air	14,500' Air 23
What indicates a "good" self test of the automatic pressurization cotroller? Air	All "8"s in the window on power up. (notes)
What do the Knights who say Nee demand as a sacrifice? MP:THG	A shrubbery. MP:THG
What are the 5 ways to shut off the APU? APU	APU selected off Press the APU stop button APU fire test for 10 seconds APU fire Select all batteries and generators off. (notes)
What isolates the APU from the rest of the aircraft? APU	A titanium firewall. APU 1
What controls the APU? APU	A FADEC. APU 4
What does the APU generator provide? APU	28 VDC, 400A APU 4
What DC bus does the APU operat in paralell with? APU	DC Bus 2 APU 4
When is the APU generator able to supply power? APU	95% RPM + 7 seconds APU 4
What power sources can the APU be started from? APU	External power, Battery 2 or Battery 2 and a main generator. APU 4
Can you start the APU with Battery #1? APU	No, the APU will always be started with battery #2. APU 4
Why can Battery #1 not be used to start the APU? APU	Battery #1 is segregated from the load busses to provide stable electrical power to transient sensitive equipment. APU 5
When might the APU automatically shut down in flight? APU	Overspeed or underspeed, loss of speed data. Failure to start, accelerate or light. External short. Loss of FADEC signal or FADEC failure. APU 5
What might cause the APU to shut down automatically on the ground (or 30 sec after landing)? APU	Fire EGT overtemp or loss of EGT signal. High oil temp, low oil pressure or oil pressure switch short. APU 5
How long can you press the fire detection system test button before the APU will shut down? APU	10 seconds. APU 5
Where does the APU draw fuel from? APU	The right wing tank. APU 5
How can the APU fuel shutoff valve be closed? APU	APU master off APU fuel shutoff button APU EXTG button APU fire test for 10 seconds while on ground. APU 5
Regarding he AHRS, what must be presented on the EICAS beore starting the APU? APU	AHRS 1 (2) ALN APU 9
At what RPM during the APU start seqence does the FADEC supply ignition and fuel? APU	3% on ground, 0% in flight. APU 9
At what RPM during the APU start seqence does the FADEC de-energize the starter? APU	50% APU 9
At what RPM during the APU start seqence does the FADEC de-energize the ignition exciter? APU	70% APU 9
At what RPM will the APU autmatically shut down? APu	Above 104% APU 9
When you press the APU EXTG button, what happens? APU	Sends a stop signal to the FADEC. Closes the APU FSOV. Discharges APU fire extinguisher. APU 11
Why does Prince Herbert's father want him to marry the princess? MP:THG	She's got huge tracts of land. MP:THG
What is the automatic flight control system composed of? Auto	Dual IC-600s, autopilot servos, a flight guidance controller, a ptich and turn controller and adisplay controller. Auto 1
Which IC-600 has the autopilot functons? Auto	IC-600 #1 Auto 1
What range does the radio altimiter display? Auto	-20 to 2,500' Auto 2
When is the "low bank" mode automatically selected? Auto	When climbing above 25,000' or descending through 24,750'. Auto 5
When you press "BNK", what is the bank angle changed to? Auto	From 27 to 14 degrees. Auto 5
What is the difference between VOR nav mode and VOR approach mode? Auto	It provides the same abilities as VOR nav mode, but with a higher gain for operations close to the sation. Auto 6
IF you select FLC at 15,000' what will the aircraft descend at? Auto	-2,000 FPM Auto 9
IF you select FLC at 9,000' what will the aircraft descend at? Auto	-1,000 FPM Auto 9
At what altitude does FLC change from 1,000 FPM to 2,000 FMP? Auto	Between 10,000' and 12,000'. Auto 9
IF you select FLC at 5,000' what will the aircraft climb at? Auto	240 KTS Auto 9
IF you select FLC at 15,000' what will the aircraft climb at? Auto	270 KTS Auto 9
IF you select FLC at FL250 what will the aircraft climb at? Auto	0.56M Auto 9
At what altitude does FLC transition from 240 to 270 KTS? Auto	Between 10,000 and 12,000, linearly. Auto 9
When does the PLI appear? Auto	when the margin to stick shaker is less than or equal to 10 degrees. Auto 11
If you go around and press the GA buttons, what will the command bars indicate? Auto	10 dgrees nose up for 20 seconds, and then it will limit the speed to between 1.23 Vso and 170 KTS. Auto 12
Can the autopilot be engaged without the yaw damper? Auto	No. (Notes)
What panel contains the autopilot controls? Auto	The flight guidance controller. Auto 17
When will the GA buttons automatically disconnect the autopliot? Auto	If a decreasing performance windshear has been detected. Auto 20
What panel contains the radar functions? Auto	The display controller panel. Auto 21
What is the speed range displayed by the IAS PFD indicator? Auto	42 KTS (notes)
What must thou count to, to use the Holy Hand Grenade of Antioch? MP:THG	Thou shall count to three, no more, no less. MP:THG
How many RMU (radio managment units) are there? C/N	2 C/N 4
What pages can the RMU display as a backup to primary displays? C/N	Navigation and engine pages. C/N 5
How can you "direct tune" a com radio? C/N	Press the frequency line select key for three seconds. C/N 7
Which transponder whould be selected when conducting RVSM flights? C/N	The transponder of the pilot flying. C/N 9
What happens if you lose the primary radio system bus? C/N	The ability to cross side tune is lost. C/N 9
What does the TBCH (tuning backup control head) provide? C/N	An alternate means of tuning COM/NAV 2. C/N 10
What happens if you select the emergency mode on the TBCH? C/N	The RMS (radio managent system) will only accept TBCH tuning of the COMM and NAV. C/N 10
The DAP (digital audio panel) loses power, what do you do and what happens? C/N	Select emergency mode. The pilots will be connected to their respective COMM and NAV, and the interphone will be lost. C/N 11
Which sign generates a chime, the: No Smoking or Fasten Seatbelts sign? C/N	Both do. C/N 11
What powers the CVR (cockpit voice recorder)? C/N	ESS DC bus 2 C/N 12
How much information does the CVR retain? C/N	2 hours. C/N 12
How can the CVR data be erased? C/N	Aircraft on ground, parking brake set and press "erase". (notes)
What are the sources of power aboard the aircraft? Elect	4 28V/400A engine driven generators 1 APU 28V/400A starter-generator 2 NiCad 24V/44AH main batteries 1 lead-acid 24V/5AH backup battery Elect 1
What cotrols the electrical system? Elect	The EDL (electrical distribution logic) and GCUs (generator control units). Elect 1
When will you get an EICAS GEN OVLD message? Elect	When generator current exceeeds 400A Elect 2
Does the illumination of the "GPU AVAIL" in the GPU button mean that the external power is within acceptable limits? Elect	No. Elect 2
What are the acceptable ground power voltage limits? Elect	26.0 - 29.0 V Elect 2
How long can the main batteries provide power in the event of losing all generators? Elect	40 minutes of essential power. Elect 2
Where are the main batteries located? Elect	left side of aircraft nose. Elect 3
What does the backup battery do? Elect	It provides stabilized power to the GCUs in event of short circuit or near 0 system voltage. Elect 3
When is the backup battery charged? Elect	The battery #1 selector must be in AUTO. Elect 3
When do the engine driven generators come online? Elect	56.4% N2 Elect 3
If an engine driven generator goes off bus, can you do anything? Elect	The generator may be reset once. Elect 3
What is the function of the centra DC bus? Elect	Connect the APU or GPU to the load buses and provide bus interconnection in event of generator failure or engine shutdown. Elect 4
Is the EDL the same in flight as on the ground? Elect	No. Elect 4
Are all DC buses powered with 4 or 5 generators online? Elect	Yes. Elect 5
Are all DC buses powered with 3 generators online? Elect	Yes. Elect 5
Are all DC buses powered with 1 or 2 generators online? Elect	No. Elect 5
Are all DC buses powered with ground power selected on? Elect	Yes. Elect 4
What rows of circuit breakers are powered durng an electrical emergency? Elect	Bottom 3 rows. (notes)
What is an electrical emergency? Elect	Loss of all generators in flight. Elect 16
If automatic transfer to essential power has failed in an electrical emergency, what should be done? Elect	The essential power button should be pressed if automatic transfer fails. Elect 16
What is an electrical essential transfer failure? Elect	All generators hve been lost, but DC bus 1 and/or 2 remain energized. Elect 16
When is the ground service bus energized? Elect	Batteries and generators are disconnected. Elect 21
What is powered by he ground service bus? Elect	Passenger cabin lights Lav lights Galley lights Courtesy lights Dome lights Baggage compartment and area lights. Elect 21
How many questions must you answer the Bridgekeeper of the Bridge of Death? MP:THG	Who approaches the Bridge of Death Must answer me These questions three! Ere the other side he see. MP:THG
Why do we select the avionics master switches off for APU starting on the ground? Elect	It prevents undesirable voltage transients. Elect 22
How many AC inverters do are on the aircraft? Elect	1 Elect 28
Describe the inverter. Elect	The inverter is 250VA/400Hz and takes 28 VDC and covnerts it to 115 VAC for use by the avionics system. Elect 28
What type of engines does the EMB 145 have? The 135? Eng	AE3007A1 and AE3007A1/3, respectively. Eng 1
How many stages does the engine compressor have and what is the compression ratio? Eng	14 stages, 22:1 ratio. Eng 1, (notes)
Which compressor stages are provided with variable geometry? Eng	The inlet guide vanes and stages 1-5. Eng 1
Where are the bleed air tappings taken from? Eng	9th and 14th stages. Eng 1
What systems are driven on the engine driven accessory gearbox? Eng	Hydraulic pump Electrical generators (2) Air turbine starter Permanent Magnet Alternator Oil Pump FPMU Eng 2
What controls the FPMU? Eng	The FADEC. Eng 4
What does the FPMU supply fuel for? Eng	The FPMU provides pressurized fuel for engine operation and CVG. Eng 4
What does the FCOC do (fuel cooled oil cooler)? Eng	Take fuel from the FPMU and use it to cool engine oil and raise fuel temperature. Eng 5
What does the CVG do? Eng	The FADEC controls the CVG to provide the best vane positions for maximum compressor efficiency. Eng 5
How many fuel nozzles does each engine have? Eng	16 Eng 5
What are the main parts of the Oil System? Eng	The oil tank, lube and scavenge pumps, oil filter, the ACOC (air cooled oil cooler), and the FCOC. Eng 6
How many quarts does the engine oil tank hold? Eng	12 quarts. Eng 6
How many engine oil sumps are there? Eng	4 Eng 7
What are the magnetic chip collectors for? Eng	Debris monitoring and protection of the pumping elements.
Why is air bled from the 9th stage during engine start? Eng	To assist with accelerating to idle RPM. Eng 9
Where are the valves locate that bleed air during engine start? Eng	12 and 6 o'clock positions. Eng 9
What is the primary source of power for the engine? Eng	The PMA. Eng 9
What powers the FADEC before the PMA comes online? Eng	Power from the ESS DC bus. Eng 9
When is the PMA capable of supplying the FADECs with power? Eng	50% N2 Eng 9
When is the PMA capable of supplying power to the ignition system? Eng	10% N2 Eng 9
In an electrical emergency, where do the thrust setting mode buttons get power? Eng	The PMA. Eng 9
How many windings does the PMA have? Eng	4, two 3-phase windings and 2 single phase windings. Eng 9
What do the PMA 3 phase windings do? Eng	Supply power to each FADEC, one 3-phase winding supplies secondary N2 information to the FADECs. Eng 9
What do the PMA single phase windings do? Eng	Supply power to each ignition system. Eng 9
In auto mode, do one or both igniton systems activate in event of a auto-relight? Eng	Both systems. Eng 10
In event of engine start switch start position failure, can the engine still be started? Eng	Yes, the SCV (start control valve) can be operated manually by ground personnel. Eng 11
If you see E1 ATS SOV OPN, what happened? Eng	The SCV remained open after 53% N2. Eng 11
When does the low oil quantity sensor send a signal to the EICAS? Eng	6 quarts or less. Eng 13
What does FUEL LO TEMP mean on the EICAS? Eng	The fuel leaving the FCOC is less than 5 C.
What is a FADEC? Eng	Full Authority Digital Engine Control Eng 14
What does the FADEC data bus do? Eng	Allow FADECs on each engine to communicate for purposes of ATTCS and thrust reverser interlock. Eng 14
Who does Jesus say that will inherit the Earth? MP:TLoB	The Greek. MP:TLoB
When will the controlling FADEC automatically transfer engine control to the other FADEC? Eng	When the controlling FADEC detects a fault that will result in degraded engine performance or it is incapable of controlling the engine. Eng 16
At what N2 speed will the FADEC command a shutdown? Eng	53% N2 Eng 18
Does the FADEC provide ITT safety limits during engine start? Eng	No. Eng 18
What happens if the FADEC loses N1 signal? Eng	The FADEC will use the N2 signal in a reversionary control mode. Eng 19
When is ATTCS armed? Eng	Both engines capable - and: ALT T/0 1 selected, the aircraft is on the ground, the engine is running, and the associated TLA is at or above 45 deg. Eng 23
What will trigger ATTCS? Eng	The on-side FADECs receive an engine inop or a TLA limited to idle signal, the opp eng's TLA is reduced below 38 deg, the opp eng isn't ATTCS capable within 2 sec of on side ATTCS being armed, or the opp eng disarms ATTCS w/o on-side disarming w/in 2 sec.
When is ATTCS disarmed? Eng	The TLA is reduced below 42 deg after ATTCS has been armed, ATTCS is triggered on either engine, no ATTCS capable mode is selected. Eng 24
What temperature range of ambient should the takeoff data setting remain within? Eng	+/- 3 deg. Eng 25
What are the engine start events? Eng	Ignition at 14% in auto, 10% "ON" Fuel at 28.5% N2 or 12 seconds after ignition SCV closes at 56.4% N2
How many locks does the thrust reverser have? Eng	3, the primary and secondary locks are electrically controlled and hydraulically actuated, the tertiary lock is electrically controlled and actuated. Eng 28
When will each FADEC allow maximum reverse thrust? Eng	Both main gear indicate on ground and a wheelspeed above 25 KTS, or, all 3 gear indicate on the ground. Eng 29
What does E1 ATTCS NO MARGIN mean when presented on the EICAS? Eng	The engine has no ITT or N2 margin to achive higher thrust it ATTCS is triggered. Eng 40
What is Brian's last name? MP:TLoB	Cohen. MP:TLoB
What type of extinguishing agent do the cabin and cockpit fire extinguishers use? Fire	Halon. Fire 1
Could you discharge an engine fire bottle on the ground with all generators and batteries selected off? Fire	Yes, the engine fire extinguishing system is powered by the Hot Battery Bus 1. Fire 1
How many fire detection loops are there? Fire	5, 1 each engine, 1 each engine pylon, 1 for the APU. Fire 1
How do the fire loops work? Fire	The loops have 2 tubes, one inside the other. The core has a hydrogen impregnated material and the outer tube is filled with helium. Overheating causes the gas pressure to rise, tripping a switch and activation the warning system. Fire 1
If there is an APU fire detected, how long will the APU continue to run if you do nothing? Fire	The APU will automaticlly shut down after 10 seconds of fire warning on the ground. Fire 2
Why is it not desirable to discharge the same fire bottle twice, i.e. select fire bottle "A" on the engine 1 fire handle, and select bottle "A" on the engine 2 fire handle? Fire	It may cause structural damage to the fire bottle. Fire 2
How are the fire bottles discharged? Fire	By electrically firing a squib through the dischage port's seal. (notes)
Will there be any EICAS indication if the lavatory fire extinguisher has discharged? Fire	No. Fire 4
Where is the lavatory fire extinguisher located? Fire	Above the waste basket in the waste compartment. Fire 4
How is the lavatory fire extinguisher discharged? Fire	Temperature sensitive seals melt on the discharge tubes under high temperatures. Fire 4
How many smoke detectors does the baggage department have? Fire	2. Fire 5
When the baggage compartment smoke detectors detect smoke, what do they do? Fire	They send a signal to the EICAS and shut off the baggage compartment fan. Fire 5
Can you see into the baggage compartment in flight to check for smoke or flames? Fire	Yes, there is a sight glass in the lavatory wall. Fire 5
What will cause the baggage fire extinguisher button to illuminate? Fire	Smoke detected Low pressure in the baggage extinguisher bottle A smoke detection test After pressing the BAGG EXTG button A baggage compartment fan relay fault Fire 5
Where are the baggage fire bottles located? Fire	The rear electronics compartment. Fire 5
What is the difference between the two baggage fire bottles? Fire	The high discharge bottle floods the baggage compartment immediately, the metering discharge bottle provides the required level of extinguishing agent for 50 minutes. Fire 5
What type of extinguishing agent do the APU, engine and lav fire extinguishing systems use? Fire	Halon. Fire
When you press the APU fire extinguisher button, what happens? APU	It sends a stop signal to the APU FADEC, it closes the APU FSOV and it discharges the APU fire bottle. Fire 6
When you press the fire detection system test button, what should you see? Fire	EICAS: (WARN) APU FIRE, ENG 1-2 FIRE and BAGG SMOKE; (CAUT) APU FIRE DET FAIL, E1-2 FIRE DET FAIL. Both fire handles and the bagg extg button illuminate. Fire 6
How long must you wait before retestng the fire detection sytem? Fire	6 seconds. Fire 6
What is the difference between the 135 and 145 lav smoke detecton systems? Fire	The EMB 135 has an additional horn in front of the lavatory door. Fire 10
How are the elevators actuated? F/C	Mechanically. F/C 1
If the aircraft loses all hydraulics, will you still be able to move the flight control surfaces? F/C	Yes, the elevator is mechanically driven, the rest of the flight controls have mechanical reversion. F/C 1
What is the gust lock for? F/C	The gust lock prevents damage to the elevator during gusty conditions on the ground. F/C 1
How are the rudders and ailerons protected from damaging gusts of wind? F/C	They are hydraulically damped. F/C 1
What type of flaps does the aircraft have? F/C	Double slotted fowler flaps. F/C 15
How long can you press the trim switches before the trim will stop moving? F/C	3 seconds. (notes)
How long can you actuate a split trim switch before the switch becomes deactivated? F/C	7 econds. F/C 6
What is Brian's Father's name? MP:TLoB	Naughtius Maximus MP:TLoB
If the elevators become jammed in flight, what can be done? F/C	The elevator disconnect handle may be pulled. F/C 2
Can the elevator or ailerons be reconnected in flight once the disconnect handles have been pulled? F/C	No, reconnection must be done on the ground by maintenance. F/C
Can the autopilot be used with disconnected elevators? F/C	No. F/C 2
What are servo tabs? F/C	Servo tabs reduce pitch control forces by deflecting opposite the elevators. F/C 2
What are spring tabs? F/C	Spring tabs reduce control forces by deflecting opposite the elevators, spring tabs operate at high speeds when aerodynamic loads are greater. F/C 2
What range do the pitch trim markings display on the tail of the aircraft? F/C	-4 to +10 degrees, 2 degrees each mark. F/C 3
How many channels does the HSCU (horizontal stabilizer control unit) have? F/C	2, a main and a backup. F/C 4
What does the HSCU base its trimming rate on? F/C	Airspeed. F/C 4
If you press the main and backup trim switches at the same time, will both the main and backup trim motors actuate at the same time? F/C	No, only one motor may be actuated at a time. F/C 4
If the stall shaker is activated, can you apply nose up pitch trim? F/C	No, the trim up command is inhibited. F/C 4
If the HSA (horizontal stabilizer actuator) is stalled and you actuate the trim switch, how long, cumulativey, may you actuate the trim switch before before the associated trim system is shut off? F/C	A total of 16 seconds. F/C 6
Where is the autopilot connected to the aileron system? F/C	The left side. F/C 7
Where are the trim and artificial feel systems connected to the aileron system? F/C	The right side. F/C 7
If the ailerons are disconnected, may the autopilot be used? F/C	No. F/C 7
When you trim the controls, does it move a trim tab on the control surface? F/C	No, trimming is done by recentering the artificial feel system for the control axis. F/C 8
Which rudder is mechanical or hydraulic? F/C	The forward rudder is hydraulic, the aft rudder is mechanically linked to the forward rudder. F/C 9
What is the rudder PCU (power control unit) F/C	The PCU is a dual hydraulic unit that is powered by both hydraulic systems, each PCU unit controls one rudder actuator and provides rudder articicial feel. F/C 9
How can either rudder system be shut off? F/C	Manually by the overhead panel, automatically by the rudder hardover protection. F/C 9
When are both rudder systems powered? F/C	Both are powered below 135 KTS, rudder system 1 shuts off above 135 KTS. F/C 9
If you see an EICAS RUDDER OVERBOOST message, what happened? F/C	Rudder system 1 has failed to shut off after 135 KTS. F/C 9
What will cause rudder hardover protection to automatically shut off the operating rudder system? F/C	Rudder deflected above 5 deg, 130 lbs force on rudder pedal opposite rudder deflection, both engines above 56.4% N2. F/C 10
How are the flaps actuated? F/C	Electrically by the FECU (flap electronic control unit). F/C 15
Can you select intermediate flap positions? F/C	No. F/C 15
What has happened if you see an EICAS FLAP LOW SPEED message? F/C	One of the 2 motors of the FPDU (Flap power and drive unit), or it's associated control channel, velocity sensor or brake has failed. The flaps will be driven at half speed and the EICAS flap indicator will count each degree of flap movement. F/C 15
Other than the EICAS, where else is the flap position displayed? F/C	The trailing edge of the wing has markings for flaps 9 and 22. F/C 15
In event of flap asymmetry, what happens? F/C	If the flaps are more than 2 deg different. they will lock. The system must be reset by maintenance. (notes)
Which panels are the speed brakes and which are the spoilers? F/C	The inboard panels are ground spoilers only, the outboard panels are speed brakes and ground spoilers. F/C 17
When will the ground spoilers deploy? F/C	Aircraft on ground, Main gear above 25 knots, Both engine TLAs below 30 deg or both engines below 56.4% N2 F/C 17
When can the speed brakes be opened? F/C	Both engine TLAs below 50 deg, flaps set 0 or 9 deg. F/C 17
What range does the EICAS pitch trim indicator show? F/C	-4 to +10 deg, 3.5 deg per unit. F/C 23
What is the name of Pilate's fweind in wome? MP:TLoB	Biggus Dickus MP:TLoB
What are the standby instruments? F/I	The magnetic compass, standby airspeed, altitude and attitude indicators. Some aircraft are equipped with an ISIS system instead of individual standby instruments. F/I 1
What do the ADCs (air data computers) supply the IC-600s with? F/I	Pressure altitude, barometric altitude, TAS, calibrated airspeed, VS, mach speed, SAT, Vmo and TAT. F/I 1
What does pitot/static tube 3 do? F/I	It supplies total air pressure to the standby airspeed indicator and altimiter, as well as supplying static pressure to the CPAM. F/I 4
How many pitot tubes, TAT probes and static ports are there? F/I	2 TAT probes, 2 pitot tubes, 1 pitot static and 6 static ports. F/I 4
If you see an amber ADC 2 on your PFD, what does that mean? F/I	ADC or SG has been pressed on the reversionary panel and only one ADC is supplying data or both sides are supplying cross side data. F/I 6
If you have a red "X" through your altitude, IAS, or a red VS on your VS indcator, what happened? F/I	The respective part of the ADC has failed and ADC should be selected on the reversionary panel. F/I 7
What does the airspeed trend vector display? F/I	The airspeed the aircraft will be at in 10 seconds. F/I 8
What speed does the top of the white range in the low speed awareness tape indicate? F/I	1.23 Vso F/I 9
What speed does the top of the amber range in the low speed awareness tape indicate?	1.13 Vso, the stick shaker may be activated in this range. F/I 9
What speed does the red range indicate in the low speed awareness tape?	Vs, the stick pusher is activated. F/I 9
What color will the airspeed indicator be if the trend vector exceeds Vmo? F/I	Amber. F/I 9
What color will the airspeed indicator be at Vmo? F/I	F/I 9
If you see an amber "IAS" displayed on your airspeed indicator, what does that mean? F/I	A difference of 5 knots or more between airpseed indicators. F/I 10
If you see an amber "ALT" on your altitude indicator, what does that mean? F/I	There is a difference of 200 feet or more between PFD altitude displays. F/I 12
What does the altitude trend vector display? F/I	The altitude at which the aircraft will be in 6 seconds. F/I 12
Where does the ISIS get its power and how long will it last? F/I	ESS DC BUS 2, 40 minutes. F/I 19
What range does the radio altimiter display? F/I	-20 to 2500'. F/I 26
What functions does the chronometer/clock have? F/I	It displays: Flight #, GMT, local time, elapsed time, chronometer time, and date.
Can the aircraft be moved during AHRS alignment? F/I	No, it must remain stationary. F/I 34
What does a "ROL" comparison monitor be displayed on the PFD? F/I	If the roll deviates by more than 6 dgrees between the 2 PFDs. F/I 40
When will a "HDG" comparison monitor be displayed on the PFD? F/I	There is a difference of more than 6 degrees between PFD headings. F/I 40
What has happend if you get a "HDG FAIL" or and "ATT FAIL" on your PFD? F/I	The AHRS may have failed, AHRS should be selected on the reversionary panel. F/I 41
What was Biggus Dickus' wife's name? MP:TLoB	Incontinentia Buttocks MP:TLoB
What is the purpose of the collector box in the fuel tank? Fuel	To keep the electric fuel pump inlets submerged. Fuel 1
What is the purpose of the fuel tank ejector pump? Fuel	Keep the collector box filled. Fuel 1
How much fuel does the aircraft hold? Fuel	11,100 lbs at 6.7 lbs/gal. Fuel
What will generate a FUEL 1 (2) LO LEVER message? Fuel	Less than 584 lbs remaining. Fuel 1
What is the purpose of the fuel vent system? Fuel	To prevent excessive positive or negative pressures in the tank. Fuel 1
How many electric fuel pumps are there? Fuel	3. Fuel 2
What are the requirements for fuel pump operation durng takeoff and go around? Fuel	1 pump is capable of supplying both engines under all phases of flight except T/O and G/A, 1 pump is required to be operating for each engine and the APU during T/O and G/A. Fuel 2
If you have no operating fule pumps, will the engines continue to run? Fuel	Yes, the engine driven fuel pump will provide suction feed, but it is limited to 25,000'. Fuel 2
Can you cross feed during takeoff and go around? Fuel	No. Fuel 2
Where does the APU get its fuel? Fuel	The #2 side fuel system. Fuel 2
With the aircraft powered off. can refueling still be accomplished? Fuel	Yes, the fueler must select "BATTERY" on the external fueling panel. Fuel 4
What are the refueling pressure limits? Fuel	35-50 PSI. Fuel 4
Durng defueling, what is the lowest level the electric fuel pumps can be operated at? Fuel	54 lbs/tank. Fuel 4
How many direct measuring sticks are there and where are they located? Fuel	3 each side, 2 under the wing, 1 in the wing to fuselage fairing. Fuel 6
What does "FUEL IMBALANCE" mean on the EICAS? Fuel	There is an 800 lb difference between tanks, the message will extinguish when they are bck within 100 lbs. Fuel 13
What does "FUEL EQ XFEED OPEN" mean on the EICAS? Fuel	Fuel is being transferred to correct an imbalance and is now within 100 lbs or fuel is being transfered to the high side. Fuel 13
How long did the hermit Simon maintain silence before Brian stepped on his foot? MP:TLoB	18 years. MP:TLoB
How many hydraulic systems does the aicraft have? Hyd	2 independent systems. Hyd 1
What is the difference between the hydraulic systems? Hyd	There is a prority valve in system 1. Hyd 1
What does the hydraulic shutoff valve do? Hyd	Cuts off the hydraulic supply to the engine driven pump. Hyd 1
How can the hydraulic shutoff valve be closed? Hyd	Pulling the fire handle or pressing the engine pump shutoff button on the overhead panel. Hyd 1
How much pressure does the engine driven pump deliver? Hyd	3,000 PSI Hyd 2
What is the difference between the engine driven and electric pumps? Hyd	The engine driven pump has greater capacity and 3,000 PSI, while the electric pump has lower capacity and 2,900 PSI. Hyd 2
What does the priority valve do? Hyd	Ensures hydraulic power to the flight controls during gear operation with only 1 electric pump supplying the system. Hyd 2
When will the electric hydraulic pumps turn on automatically? Hyd	When the associated hydraulic pressure drops below 1600 PSI or the engine drops below 56.4% N2. Hyd 2
What is the purpose of the hydraulic accumulator? Hyd	It keeps hydraulic system surges to a minimum, keeps 3000 PSI available for landing gear operation and emergency parking brake operation. Hyd 2
When will the EICAS present a hydraulic low quantity indication? Hyd	1 liter in the reservoir. Hyd
What machine does Dr. Spencer reqest by sound? MP:TMoL	The machine that goes "Ping!" MP:TMoL
What are the hot air heated areas of the aicraft? Ice	Wing and horizontal stab leading edges, the engine air inlet lips. Ice 1
What are the electrically heated areas of the aircraft? Ice	Windshields, pitot and pitot/static, AOA sensors, TAT probes, ADC and pressurization static ports. Ice 1
Where does the hot air come from for anti-icing? Ice	14th stage compressor air. Ice 2
What are piccolo tubes? Ice	Piccolo tubes direct hot air towards the leading edge of the hot air heated surfaces. Ice 2
What low pressure detection do the wings and horizontal stab have? Ice	The wings compare wing root to root and tip to tp pressure, and the horizontal stab compares tip to tip. (+/- 2 PSI) Ice 2, notes
Where does engine inlet anti icing get its hot air from?	A tapping upstream of the HSV. Ice 2
When are the wing and stab anti icing valves inhibited and why? Ice	the are inhibited on the ground below 25 KTS to prevent structural damage due to excessive heating except during ice protection testing. The test should not be activated for more than 15 seconds. Ice 3
What 2 modes of operation does the windshield temp controller have? Ice	Defog and anti ice heat. If the temp goes below 26C the controller will attempt to maintain this temperature; if the ice detectors detect ice, the controller will maintain 43C. Ice 6
When are the electrically heated areas heated automatically (exc. TATs) ? Ice	Whenever 1 engine is running above 56.4% N2. Ice 7
When are the TATs heated automatically? Ice	Whenever their anti icing subsystem is on and the respective TLA is in the thrust set position, or the aircraft is in flight. Ice 7
How do the ice detectors work? Ice	The ice detectors vibrate ultrasonically and the formation of ice disrupts the vibration, activating the anti icing systems. The signal is active for 60 seconds while the probe is heated and the detection system reset. Ice 8
Will the wing and stab anti-icing turn on below 25 KTS with the ice detection override know in the "ALL" position? Ice	No, unless wheel speed is above 25 knots or the test know is selected in 1 or 2.
What messages will be presented for a pneumatic ice test on the ground? Ice	ICE CONDITION, ICE DET 1 (2) FAIL. CROSS BLD OPEN and BLD 1 (2) LOW TEMP may also be presented. Ice 9
What does Dad tell his children he has to do with them? MP:TMoL	Sell them all for scientific experiments. MP:TMoL
How many weight on wheel switches are there? Land	5, 2 each main, 1 on the nose gear. Land 1
Between the 4 main gear proxinity switches, if only 1 is giving a valid signal, what will the LGEU (landing gear electronic unit) do? Land	It may provide an air or ground signal, depending on which signals are affected. Land 1
What is the nose gear proximity switch used for? Land	The thrust reverser logic and a backup for steering control. Land 1
Which gear doors are hydraulicaly actuated? Land	Nose gear by hydraulic system 1. Land 1
How can the gear be extended if the gear handle fails? Land	Through an electrical override system, or if that fails, a fre fall system. Land 1
What holds the gear up? Land	Mechanical uplocks. Land 1
What does the electrical override swich do? Land	It bypasses the LGEU and directly actuates the landing gear electrovalve and the nose gear door solenoid valve. Land 2
What does the free fall extension lever do? Land	The lever mechanically unlocks the 3 landing gear uplocks and connects the landing gear hydraulic lines directlu to the return lines. Land 3
If you forget to select the gear down on approach when will you hear the "LANDING GEAR" warning? Land	RA below 1,200', or flaps set at 45 degrees. Land 5
Do you need to tap the brake pedals on gear retraction to stop wheel spin? Land	No, the pressure is applied to the main wheels automatically and the nose wheel is slowed by snubbers in the nose wheel well. Land 6
Are there any braking protections for the emergency brake? Land	No. Land 6
What does the anti-skid system provide? Land	Maximum allowable braking effort for the surface in use, minimized tire wear, optimized braking distance, and skid prevention. Land 8
When is anti-skid and locked wheel protection deactivated? Land	Below 10 knots wheel speed. Land 8
What is locked wheel protection? Land	Locked wheel protection is activated above 30 knots. If 1 wheel is 30% slower than the fastest, brake pressure is released for the slower wheel. Land 8
What is touchdown protection? Land	Touchdown protection prevents brake actuation before main wheel spinup. Land 8
When will touchdown protection allow braking? Land	3 seconds from the last touchdown or the wheels have spun up to 50 knots. However, if both proximity switches fail in the "air" positon, braking will only be available above 10 knots. (emergency braking still available) Land 8
How many actuations does the parking brake provide? Land	6 actuations or 24 at least 24 hours of parking brake set actuation. Land 10
How do you prevent hydraulic fluid from being transfered when setting the parking brake? Land	Apply and hold normal brakes when setting the parking brake. Land 10
Can you transfer hydraulic fluid? Land	No. Land
How many degrees of nose wheel steering are available? Land	76 degrees; 5 degrees from the rudder pedals, 71 degrees from the tiller. Land 11
How will you know if there is an external switch to disengage the nosewheel steering? Land	There will be a placard by the tiller stating "EXT SWITCH". Land 11
When might you use the landing gear warning cutout switch? Land	Inoperative radar altimiter with the flaps less than 22 deg; one TLA less than 59 deg and the other less than 45 deg (or the associated OEI). Land 14
What emergency equipment is in the cockpit? Misc	3 life vests, 3 02 masks, 3 smoke goggles, 2 escape ropes, 2 flashlights, 1 fire extinguisher, 1 PBE and 1 crash axe. Misc 3
What emergency equipment is in the cabin? Misc	1 life vest, 2 flashlights, 2 (PBEs, fire extinguishers, and 02 tools), 1 02 bottle, 1 (medical, first aid, grab 'n go, and ancillary) kit, 1 defibrillator and 5 infant life vests. Misc 3
How would you know if there are flex cuffs in the grab 'n go kit? Misc	A blue seal will be on the kit. Misc 5
What type of oxygen systems are there on the aircraft? Misc	Gaseous and chemical. Misc6
What size is the cockpit 02 cylinder and what is it filled to normally? Misc	50 cubic feet, 1850 PSI. Misc 6
How will you know if the cockpit oxygen has been overpressurized? Misc	A green disc on the right side of the aircraft will have blown out. Misc 6
What happens if oxygen pressure drops below 400 PSI? Misc	EICAS OXYGEN LO PRESS will be displayed, 12 minutes of oxygen remain for bot pilots and observer. Misc 6
At what pressure is oxygen distributed to the crew? Misc	70 PSI Misc 6
Where is the oxygen cylinder located? Misc	Behind the FO seat. Misc 6
Where can the oxygen system pressure be read? Misc	The ICE/ECS page or externally on the aircraft oxygen service panel. Misc 9, 10
When will the oxygen masks automatically provide pure oxygen? Misc	The automatic dilution system will provide pure oxygen at a cabin altitude of 33,000 feet. (pure 02 may be manually selected by selecting "EMERGENCY" on the mask) Misc 11
What indicates that the oxygen is on? Misc	A white "OXY ON" flag on the mask door and the flow indicator. Misc 11
What is the oxygen masks venting valve for? Misc	Clearing smoke from the smoke goggles. Misc 14
When is the pasenger oxygen system automatically activated? Misc	When the cabin altitude is above 14,000'. Misc 15
What happens when the passenger oxygen system is activated? Misc	The latches holding the mask doors are energized for 6 seconds, the "ON" indicator illumiates on the passenger oxygen control panel and the NO SMOKING and FASTEN SEATBELT signs are automatically illuminated. Misc 15
How long does the passenger oxygen system provide oxygen? Misc	12 minutes. Misc 15
What size is the cabin portable oxygen cylinder? Misc	10 cubic feet. Misc 19
How long does the PBE provide air for? Misc	15 minutes. Misc 20
What is the minimum oxygen pressure for dispatch with 3 crew? Misc	1650 PSI (notes)
Where is the ELT located? Misc	Above the toilet in the lav. Misc 26
What length of data does the DFDR store? Misc	25 hours. Misc 27
When does the DFDR begin recording? Misc	When the beacon is turned on, or when the aircraft is airborne. Misc 27
How does the DFDR know what flight the data is recorded from? Misc	The DFDR gets flight number information from the captain's clock. Misc 27
Can you adjust the intensity of the dome lights? Misc	No. Misc 29
How is the cabin emergency lighting powered and charged? Misc	By 4 dedicated batteries. The batteries are charged through the essential bus when in the "ARM" position. Misc 41
How long do the cabin emergency lights last? Misc	15 minutes. Misc 41
What are the emergency lights on the aircraft? Misc	144567: 1 set of floor/aisle lights, 4 overhead aisle lights, 4 exit identifiers, 5 area illumination lights, 6 exterior emergency lights and 7 exit signs. Misc 41, 42
What is the least risk bomb location on the 135, 145? Misc	Overhead bin row 2 or 3, respectively. Misc 52
What happened to the school cormorant? MP:TMoL	It had linseed oil rubbed into it. MP:TMoL
What areas do the DAUs collect data from? Warn	DAU 1 collects data from forward systems and the #1 engine, DAU #2 from aft systems and the #2 engine.
How many channels do the DAUs have? Warn	A and B, B is a standby channel. Warn 2
What will happen to RMU #1 if IC-600 #1 fails? Warn	The RMU will automatically display the first engine backup page. Warn 3
Which IC-600 will be available in an electrical emergency? Warn	#1 Warn 3
What systems pages can the MFD display? Warn	THIEF: Takeoff, ICE/ECS, Fuel, Hyd and electrical. Misc 6
What is displayed on the electrical MFD page? Warn	CVLT: Configuration, voltage, load and temperature. Warn
What instruments are available during an electrical emergency? Warn	Both RMUs, the standby instruments or ISIS, and the EICAS. Warn 11
What does a blank display with a red "X" across it mean, and what should you do? Warn	A signal generator has failed, select "SG" on the respective reversionary panel. Warn 12
What does a completely black CRT mean? Warn	The CRT has failed. Warn 12
What sort of tests does the IC-600 have? Warn	Power up, continuous and pilot initiated. The pilot initiated test is done by pressing "Test" on the display control panel. Warn 21
How many messages can be displayed on the EICAS? Warn	15 messages. Warn 26
What is the takeoff inhibition logic range? Warn	After V1 -15 knots, the logic is deactivated at an RA over 400', airspeed less than 60 KTS or one minute. Warn 26
What is the approach/landing inhibition logic range? Warn	Below 200' RA, deactivated when the aircraft is on the ground for more than 3 seconds or after 1 minute. Warn 26
What does "CAS MSG" mean on the PFD? Warn	The IC-600s disagree on an EICAS message. The difference can be discovered by selecting EICAS on the FO's MFD. Warn 26
How many channels does the AWU have? Warn	2 Warn 44
How would you know if only one AWU channel had failed? Warn	On power up, you would hear "aural warning unit, one channel". Warn 44
What would cause a takeoff configuration warning? Warn	Flaps not set 9 or 22 (145), parking brake on, pitc trim not in the green range, any spoiler panel deployed. Warn 48
How many channels does the stall protection system have? Warn	2 Warn 59
Can you disconnect the stall protection sytem? Warn	Yes, via the qucik disconnect button. Warn 49
What does SPS/ICE SPEEDS mean on the EICAS? warn	The stall protection system will actuate at reduced angle of attack for flaps 9, 8, and 22. Warn 49
When is ice compensation inhibited? Warn	For 5 minutes after takeoff. Warn 49
Can you reset SPS/ICE SPEEDS in flight? Warn	No, only on the ground by doing a SPS test. Warn 49
When is the stick pusher inhibited? Warn	On the ground, below 0.5 G, when the quick disconnect button is pressed, below 200' RA, above 200 KTS, any cutout button pressed or one channel inoperative. Warn 50
Can you do an SPS test before the AHRS has initialized? Warn	No. Warn 50
Approximately how many seconds to impact does the "CAUTION TERRAIN" warning provide? Warn	60 seconds. Warn 76
Approximately how many seconds to impact does the "TERRAIN TERRAIN" warning provide? Warn	30 seconds. Warnd 76
What airports are n the EGPWS database? Warn	All airports in the US with a runway of 3,500' or longer and a published instrument approach. Warn
When would you press the EGPWS terrain override button? Warn	When landing at an airport not in the database. Warn 80
What type of windshear have you encountered if you hear "CAUTON WINDSHEAR" and see "WDSHEAR" in amber on the PFD? Warn	An increasing performance windshear. Warn 88
What type of windshear have you encountered if you see a red "WDSHEAR" and hear "WINDSHEAR, WINDSHEAR"? Warn	A decreasing performance windshear. Warn 88
When is windshear escape guidance provided? Warn	Manually, by pressing the GA buttons when windshear detected; automatically, when in a TO or GA mode, or when the TLA is set to max thrust and a decreasing performance windshear is detected. Warn 89
Does the TCAS proved horizontal maneuvering directions? Warn	No. Warn 93
How many seconds to CPA does a TA provide? Warn	35-45 seconds. Warn 93
How many seconds to CPA does an RA provide? Warn	20-30 seconds. Warn 93
What mode transponder can the TCAS generate RAs for? Warn	Mode S or C. Warn 94
How can the weather radar FSBY mode be overriden on the ground? Warn	Press the STAB button 4 times in 3 seconds. Warn 109
How far should a cell be avoided by that prodices strong shadowing on the radar? Warn	20 NM. Warn 110
What does the TGT radar mode do? Warn	Scan 7.5 deg either side of the nose for level 3 or greater weather. Warn 111
What radar modes are forced calibrated gains? Warn	REACT or TGT. Warn 111
Can the landing and nosewheel lights be turned on with the gear up and locked? (notes)	No.
What does BATT OVTEMP on the EICAS mean? (notes)	A main battery temperature has exceeded 70 C.
Please contact me via Email with corrections, additions or comments. Jwflight at hotmail dot com.

Created by: EmbraerStudy on 2009-03-20

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