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Pharmacology Midterm
Pharmacology Ch. 1-10 Midterm Review
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| Chapter 2 Review Questions | Chapter 2 Review Questions |
| What is the study of the activity of drugs within the body known as? | pharmacokinetics |
| If a drug has a half-life of 6 hours and a starting blood concentration of 100mg/kg, how long will it take until the concentration of the drug in the blood is 25mg/kg? | 12 hours |
| What form of a drug crosses cell membranes easily? | nonionized |
| What is a classic example of a drug that is eliminated by a zero-order pharmacokinetic process? | alcohol |
| What term is used to describe the situation when the effect of two drugs given together is more intense or longer in duration than the sum of their individual actions? | synergism |
| What term is used to describe the phenomenon in which elevating a dose of drug no longer improves the clinical effect for that drug? | ceiling effect |
| What term is used to describe a drug which binds to a receptor and has an action similar to that of an endogenous chemical? | agonist |
| By what process can one drug increase the metabolism of both itself and other drugs? | induction |
| What is the rate-limiting factor for drug distribution? | blood flow |
| An all-inclusive effect on the whole body is also called a(n) __________ effect. | systemic |
| From what two organs are most drugs eliminated? | kidney and liver |
| What term is used to describe the strength by which a particular messenger binds to its receptor site? | affinity |
| What can drugs combine with in addition to receptors? | enzymes, transport proteins, nucleic acids |
| What term is used to describe a severe response to a chemical that is characterized by life-threatening respiratory distress and shock? | anaphylactic reaction |
| The process in the body by which drugs are converted to other biochemical compounds and then are excreted is | metabolism |
| Why are the intestines the major site of drug absorption after oral administration of drugs? | They have a large surface area from which to absorb drugs. |
| How does grapefruit interact with certain drugs? | It contains a compound that can inhibit intestinal cytochrome P-450, allowing more drug to be absorbed. |
| What does bioavailability reflect? | the fraction of an administered dose that is available to the target tissue |
| What does the abbreviation ADME stand for? | absorption, distribution, metabolism, elimination |
| In what way are the capillaries in the central nervous system (CNS) different from other capillaries? | They are enveloped by glial cells, which present additional barriers against water-soluble compounds. |
| Chapter 4 Review Questions | Chapter 4 Review Questions |
| What is the most frequent form of bacterial resistance to antibiotics? | destruction of the antibiotic by bacterial enzymes |
| By which century were the organisms that cause cholera, syphilis, and leprosy isolated and identified? | 20th |
| Which of the following is an example of a gram-positive bacterium and infection it causes? | Staphylococcus resulting in toxic shock syndrome |
| What bacterial pathway do sulfonamides interfere with? | folic acid biosynthesis |
| What is true of a bacteriostatic antibiotic? | It inhibits the growth or multiplication of bacteria. |
| What term is used to describe antibiotic treatment that is begun before the results of the organism culture have been returned? | empirical |
| Why should the counting tray be swabbed with alcohol after dispensing and antibiotic? | to prevent cross-contamination |
| Which of the following drugs is associated with an adverse effect know as Red Man's syndrome? | vancomycin |
| What are two general signs that an infection is bacterial in origin? | white blood cell count above 12,000 and fever above 101 degrees Fahrenheit |
| What type of infections are aminoglycosides such as amikacin or kanamycin used to treat? | sepsis |
| Which statement regarding linezolid (Zyvox) is incorrect? | It should be stored in clear glass containers. |
| How do third-generation cephalosporins differ from earlier cephalosporins? | improved activity against gram-negative bacteria |
| What are the bacteria that require oxygen to survive known as? | aerobic |
| Which of the following drugs is classified as a macrolide? | erythromycin |
| Which of the following classes of antibiotics inhibits bacterial protein synthesis by binding to ribosomes | tetracyclines |
| What is the biggest challenge in developing a new antibiotic? | killing the bacteria without harming the patient |
| When this drug is dispensed, a "Do not drink alcohol" sticker must be attached to the container. | metronidazole |
| Which of the following is not a mechanism by which bacteria develop antibiotic resistance? | metabolism |
| What was the first true class of antibiotics? | sulfonamides |
| What is the most serious allergic reaction to penicillins? | anaphylaxis |
| Chapter 5 Review Questions | Chapter 5 Review Questions |
| What pair of viruses below are examples of latent viruses? | herpes and HIV |
| Which of the antiviral drugs listed below is also effective in treating patients with parkinsonism? | amantadine |
| What aspect of the fungal cell wall is affected by amphotericin B? | permeability |
| Which of the following drugs is used to treat influenza A or influenza B? | rimantadine, zanamivir, oseltamivir |
| What is an example of a chronic viral infection? | herpes |
| What is common about the mechanism of action of antifungal drugs? | Antifungals interfere with the synthesis of ergosterol, a building block for fungal cell membranes. |
| What is another name for an individual virus particle? | virion |
| Which of the following drugs is classified as a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI)? | abacavir |
| What is a common target of fungal infections? | nails |
| Which drug or drug class listed below is least likely to be used to treat side effects associated with amphotericin B? | penicillin |
| What is a route by which most common viruses spread? | direct contact, ingestion of contaminated food and water,inhalation of airborne particles, exposure of contaminated body fluids and/or contaminated equipment. |
| How can antibiotics worsen fungal infections? | Antibiotics may kill the body's natural flora, which tend to keep fungi in check. |
| Which of the following antifungal drugs should be taken with a fatty meal and can be used safely in children? | griseofulvin |
| What is becoming a common dosing method for treating fungal nail infections? | pulse dosing (one week per month) |
| What term is used to describe a specific molecule produced by B-lymphocytes with help from T helper cells and other mechanisms? | immunoglobulin |
| Why is it more difficult to develop antiviral drugs than it is to develop antibiotics? | Because viruses utilize the host (patient) cell processes, killing them is often toxic to the patient. |
| Which of the following choices represents a class of antiretroviral drugs? | nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI), non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTI),protease inhibitor (PI), fusion inhibitor |
| Which of the following drugs acts by preventing the HIV virus from entering immune cells? | enfuvirtide |
| How are fungal and human cells similar? | They both have a defined nucleus. |
| Patients taking which of the following drugs should not drive at night? | voriconazole |
| Chapter 6 Question Review | Chapter 6 Question Review |
| Which of the following narcotics is a controlled substance? | morphine, codeine, oxycodone, meperidine |
| Which of the following narcotics can be given intravenously as a preanesthetic medication and also administered as a patch or as a lozenge? | fentanyl (Actiq) |
| What class of drugs can be used to reverse the effects of non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockers? | anticholinesterases |
| Following injection with a local anesthetic, what sensation is affected first? | pain perception |
| What are the two divisions of the peripheral nervous system? | afferent and efferent |
| What is the most important action of alpha-adrenergic receptors? | vasoconstriction, raising blood pressure |
| What is the only neuromuscular blocker that acts via a depolarizing mechanism? | succinylcholine (Quelicin) |
| What term describes the physical and emotional reliance of patients on narcotics? | dependence |
| Which narcotic is the standard against which all other narcotics are measured or compared? | morphine |
| What class of drugs may be used to treat migraine headaches? | triptans |
| What did the Joint Commission on the Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations (JCAHO) define, in 2001, as the "fifth" vital sign? | pain |
| Which of the following drugs is an example of a selective 5-HT receptor agonist? | sumatriptan (Imitrex) |
| Which of the following general anesthetics is administered intravenously | ketamine (Ketalar) |
| What neurotransmitter is also known as adrenaline? | epinephrine |
| What are the primary opiate receptors associated with analgesia? | mu, kappa, delta |
| Which drug listed below can be administered as a nasal spray to treat a migraine attack? | sumatriptan (Imitrex), zolmitriptan (Zomig), dihydroergotamine (Migranal), butorphanol (Stadol) |
| Which of the following drugs are the most used preoperative sedatives? | benzodiazepines |
| What is not an aspect of balanced anesthesia? | hypertension |
| Which local anesthetic drug does not relax vascular smooth muscle? | cocaine |
| Which of the following drugs can be used to reverse the effects of a narcotic? | naloxone (Narcan) |
| Chapter 7 Question Review | Chapter 7 Question Review |
| Which monoamine oxidase inhibitor is used to treat Parkinson's patients rather than depressed patients? | selegiline (Eldepryl) |
| Which of the following drugs used to treat insomnia is not a DEA scheduled controlled substance? | diphenhydramine |
| Which of the following is an anticholinergic drug used to treat the Parkinson-like side effects of antipsychotic therapy? | benztropine (Cogentin) |
| Which of the following is the drug of choice for treating bipolar (manic-depressive)? | lithium |
| What class of drugs is part of the standard of care for alcohol (ethanol) detoxification? | benzodiazepines |
| Which of the following drugs is classified as a tricyclic antidepressant and has significant anticholinergic side effects? | imipramine |
| Which class of antidepressants inhibits enzymes that metabolize catecholamines? | MAOIs |
| Which two neurotransmitters are believed to be most involved with schizophrenia and the drugs used to treat this disorder? | dopamine and serotonin |
| Which of the following new antipsychotic drugs is classified today as being "atypical"? | olanzapine (Zyprexa) |
| Which of the following drugs is not a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor? | amitriptyline |
| What drug can be used as an alternative to lithium in the treatment of bipolar disorder, particularly with rapid cyclers? | divalproex (Depakote) |
| What drug used to treat alcohol addiction interferes with the metabolism of ethanol? | disulfiram (Antabuse) |
| During which stages of sleep does dreaming occur? | Stages III and IV |
| Fluoxetine is an example of an antidepressant that appears to work through which of the following mechanisms? | It inhibits the reuptake of serotonin into certain neurons in the brain. |
| Tardive dyskinesia is associated with the long-term use of which psychiatric medication? | antipsychotics |
| Which of the following is a symptom of alcohol withdrawal? | nausea and vomiting, delirium tremens (DTs), hallucinations, sweating |
| What term is used to describe anxiety for which there is no identifiable source other than from within the patient? | endogenous |
| Which of the following antianxiety drugs is not a benzodiazepine? | buspirone (Buspar) |
| Which drug used to treat depression is also used for smoking cessation? | bupropion |
| With which psychiatric disorder do patients suffer from alternating episodes of major depression and mild-to-severe agitation? | bipolar mood disorder |
| Chapter 8 Question Review | Chapter 8 Question Review |
| Which pair of anticonvulsants is most likely to interact with other drugs a patient may be taking? | phenobarbital (Luminal) and phenytoin (Dilantin) |
| Which drug listed below is used to treat patients with multiple sclerosis? | interferon beta-1a (Avonex, Rebif), interferon beta-1b (Betaseron), mitoxantrone (Novantrone), baclofen |
| What class of drugs may be used to diagnose and treat myasthenia gravis? | acetylcholinesterase inhibitors |
| What dopamine precursor is used to treat Parkinson patients? | levodopa (Dopar) |
| Which drug has a boxed warning about fatal rashes? | Lamictal |
| Which drug used to treat ADD/ADHD is not a controlled substance? | atomoxetine (Strattera) |
| Which of the following drugs has been shown to improve the cognitive function and social behavior of Alzheimer's patients and is sold over the counter? | gingko |
| Which neurotransmitter is deficient in the nigrostriatal pathways of patients with Parkinson's disease? | dopamine |
| The prevalence of Parkinson's disease is highest in what age group? | above age 60 |
| Which anticonvulsant does not appear to act via GABA receptors and is frequently used to treat neuropathic pain? | gabapentin (Neurontin) |
| What term is used to describe continuous tonic-clonic seizures, lasting over 30 minutes, during which consciousness may not return? | status epilepticus |
| What are the most common side effects of antiseizure medications? | sedation and some degradation of cognitive process |
| Which of the following anticonvulsants is correctly paired with the process it most likely affects? | diazepam (Valium)-- GABA |
| With what type of seizure may patients display blank stares, rotating eyes and rapid blinking; not have generalized convulsions; and have up to 100 occurrences a day? | absence |
| Which of the following anticonvulsants is a DEA scheduled controlled substance? | diazepam (Valium) |
| Which anticonvulsant is the drug of choice for absence seizures? | ethosuximide (Zarontin) |
| What two neurotransmitters in the brain appear to play the greatest role in seizures? | GABA and glutamate |
| What is the potential way in which antiepileptic medications can interact with each other and other drugs? | They can alter the metabolism of other drugs. |
| Which of the following anticonvulsants is also used to treat manic episodes in bipolar mood disorders? | valproic acid (Depakene) |
| What combination drug contains levodopa plus an inhibitor of peripheral levodopa metabolism? | Sinemet |
| Chapter 9 Question Review | Chapter 9 Question Review |
| In what percent of asthma patients is there an allergic component? | 35-55 |
| Which of the following asthma medications blocks parasympathetic acetylcholine receptors and should not be given to patients with known peanut allergies? | ipratropium (Atrovent) |
| Which of the following is an OTC expectorant available in caplet, capsule, liquid, syrup, tablet, and sustained-release forms? | guaifenesin (Mucinex) |
| Which of the following is a potentially life-threatening condition in which the patient has difficulty breathing, has blue lips, and nail beds, may lose consciousness, and does not respond to normal management? | status asthmaticus |
| What is a common adverse effect of many (older) antihistamines (H-1 blockers)? | anticholinergic responses, hyperactivity in some children, sedation |
| Which of the following drugs may be used to treat tuberculosis? | isoniazid (Laniazid, Nydrzid), rifampin (Rifadin, Rimactine), ciprofloxacin (Cipro), rifapentine (Priftin) |
| What are two signs or symptoms of nicotine excess? | dizziness and diarrhea |
| Which of the following antitussives is a DEA controlled substance? | codeine |
| Dornase alfa (Pulmozyme) may be used to treat what two lung diseases? | bronchitis and cystic fibrosis |
| With which device, used to administer asthma or COPD medications, does a stream of air flow past a liquid to create a fine mist for the patient to inhale? | nebulizer |
| Which respiratory medication listed below is an inhaled corticosteroid? | fluticasone (Flovent) |
| What is the most useful measure for assessing the severity of asthma on a regular basis? | peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) |
| Which of the following medications is least likely to be used to treat or stop an acute asthma attack? | cromolyn sodium |
| What class of drugs used to treat hypertension, angina, cardiac arrhythmias, and migraine headaches is contraindicated in asthma patients? | beta blockers |
| Which of the following is a reversible syndrome in which breathing may be difficult? | asthma |
| What is a potential symptom of nicotine withdrawal? | anxiety, difficulty in concentrating, gastrointestinal disturbances, increased appetite and weight gain |
| What is the least sedating OTC antihistamine and the only one approved by the FDA for cold symptoms? | clemastine (Tavist Allergy) |
| Which of the following drugs is only indicated for long-term maintenance therapy of bronchospasms associated with emphysema and bronchitis? | tiotropim (Spiriva) |
| An asthma attack consists of how many phases or responses? | 2 |
| Chapter 10 Question Review | Chapter 10 Question Review |
| What is another term for heartburn? | gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) |
| If abdominal pain is caused by the release of an allergy or inflammation mediator, what mast cell stabilizer may be prescribed? | cromolyn sodium (Gastrocrom) |
| What is a potential problem associated with low-fiber diets? | constipation |
| What is the drug of choice in treating malabsorption syndrome due to pancreatic insufficiency? | pancrelipase (Creon-10) |
| Which drug listed below acts to facilitate the admixture of fat and water to soften stool? | docusate-senna (Senokot-S) |
| By what criterion is dietary fiber characterized? | fermentability, water-holding capacity, stool-bulking capacity, solubility |
| What drug is metabolized by colonic bacteria and is used to prevent and treat hepatic-induced encephalopathy? | lactulose (Enulose) |
| Which drug listed below forms a protective coat over an ulcer, helping it resist degradation by gastric acid, pepsin, and bile salts? | sucralfate (Carafate) |
| What three drugs given together are used to treat H. pylori-induced peptic ulcers? | bismuth subsalicylate-metronidazole-tetracycline (Helidac) |
| Which histamine-2 receptor blocker affects cytochrome P-450 and may interact with many other drugs? | cimetidine (Tagamet) |
| What GI disorder is characterized by inflammation of the large bowel with the patient experiencing diarrhea containing blood, mucus, and pus? | ulcerative colitis |
| Which drug or drug combination is correctly paired with its DEA control schedule? | diphenoxylate-atropine (Lomotil)-- C-V |
| Which medication below is used in preteens to treat diarrhea and acts by interfering with enzyme-dependent electron transfer in anaerobic energy metabolism? | nitazoxanide (Alinia) |
| Which of the following drugs is used for chemotherapy-induced emesis and frequently causes headaches in patients treated with it? | ondansetron (Zofran) |
| For the treatment of hepatitis, which drug listed below is an interferon linked with a branched polyehylene glycol (PEG) molecule in order to allow once weekly dosing? | peginterferon alfa-2a (Pegasys) |
| What receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ) are blocked by metoclopramide (Reglan)? | dopamine |
| Which drug listed below is an example of a phase II drug used to treat GERD? | cimetidine (Tagamet), omeprazole (Prilosec), esomeprazole (Nexium), famotidine (Pepcid) |
| Which of the drugs listed below is a monoclonal antibody that binds to tumor necrosis factor (TNF) and is indicated for the treatment of Crohn's disease? | infliximab (Remicade) |
| What is praziquantel (Biltricide) used to treat? | intestinal parasites (tapeworms) |
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fuekai
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