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EMB 145 Systems

EMB 145 systems questions

What is the length? (2-01-00 p. 4) 98 ft 0 in.
What is the wingspan? (2-01-00 p. 4) 65 ft 9 in.
What is the height? (2-01-00 p. 4) 22 ft 2 in.
What is the cabin height? (2-01-00 p. 8) 6 ft 0 in.
How many rows in the cabin? Exit row? (2-1-13) 18 rows. Exit row is 12.
How many static wicks are there? Where? Are any non-deferrable? (RGS) 22 total. 1 each wingtip, 4 each aileron, 1 tailcone, 2 rudder, 4 each elevator, 1 nose wheel (non-deferrable).
How many vortilons are on each wing? (RGS) 4. They energize the air delaying tip stall and increasing aileron effectiveness.
How many vortex generators each wing? (RGS) 12 (groups of 9 & 3). They mix the stagnant boundary layer air with the free stream air to re-energize it. This increases the airflow over the control surfaces and delays separation & stall effects.
What does an amber LAV light on the FA’s control panel mean? (2-02-15 p. 2) The FA call button in the lavatory has been pressed.
What does the “PSU test” button on the FA’s control panel do? (2-02-15 p. 2) Tests all reading lights, attendant call lights, zone lights, & chimes.
How does the airstair main door operate?(2-02-35 p. 1) Raised by 2 hydraulic actuators powered by hydraulic system 1 or by an accumulator (capacity for 4 complete up & down cycles).
When will a “MAIN DOOR OPN” or a “SERVICE DOOR OPN” EICAS warning message be generated?(2-02-35 p. 1) Door open or not properly locked either in-flight, or on the ground with engine 1 running.
A “BLOCKED” inscription in the FA’s cabin door button indicates what? How would you get the door open?(2-02-35 p. 2) The main door is hydraulically blocked closed because the main door actuator hydraulic line remained pressurized after door closing. To open, turn and hold the relief valve under cockpit floor or in nose hydraulic bay for 2 min.
What doors are monitored on the MFD?(2-02-40 p. 8) Nose avionics, control rigging, main cabin, service, refueling, overwing exits, baggage and rear electronics.
DAU 1 (data acquisition unit) is primary for which systems? DAU 2? (2-04-05 p. 2) DAU 1: Eng 1, fwd systems (fwd elec comp) & FDR.DAU 2: Eng 2 & aft systems (rear elec comp).
Which channel of the DAUs is the primary source of information for IC600-1 & 2? Channel A for both.(2-04-05 p. 2)
What happens if channel A of a DAU fails? Channel B? Both channels? (2-04-05 p. 2) Channel A fail: Associated data is replaced by amber dashes & an EICAS message.Channel B fail: EICAS message only.Both channels: Associated data replaced by amber dashes & an EICAS message.
What will you see if IC600-1 fails? IC600-2? Both? What will the QRH tell you to do to get all 5 displays back if 1 IC600 fails?(2-04-05 p. 4) IC600-1: PFD1, MFD1, & EICAS = red X. RMU1 displays the first engine EICAS page automatically.IC600-2: MFD2, PFD2 = red XBoth: Combination of above conditions.QRH: Press appropriate SG button.
Are the display tubes on the panel similar?(2-04-05 p. 6) Yes, all five tubes are identical and interchangeable. The lower control panel has to be switched.
Where does the ISIS (or STBY instruments), PFD1, MFD1, EICAS, MFD2, PFD2, RMU1, TBCH, RMU2, IC600-1, & IC600-2 all get their power from?(2-04-05 p. 17) ESS1: EICAS, RMU 1, & IC600-1ESS2: ISIS (or STBY instruments), & RMU2DC1: PFD1, MFD2DC2: MFD1, PFD2, TBCH, & IC600-2
What are the 3 IC-600 built-in tests (BIT)?(2-04-05 p. 29) Power-up, continuous, & pilot initiated.
When is takeoff & landing inhibition logic activated & deactivated?(2-04-10 p. 4 rev 30) Takeoff: Activated: V1 -15 kt.Deactivated: > 400 ft RA, CAS < 60 kt (e.g., aborted T/O), or after 1 min (e.g., RA fail).Landing: Activated: 200 ft RA.Deactivated: WOW + 3 s, or 1 min (e.g., go-around or WOW system inoperative).
What is meant by an amber SG1 message on both PFDs? (2-04-05 p. 27) The FO has selected cross-side symbol generator on their reversion panel.
What does an amber “MESSAGES” with a down arrow mean on the EICAS? Could they be emergency messages? (2-04-10 p. 3) The EICAS can simultaneously display 15 messages only. Scroll down with the knob to see remaining messages. They would be caution or advisory only.
How long will a caution message blink on the EICAS before turning steady? Caution & warning messages must be cancelled by the crew. (2-04-10 p. 3)
What does an amber “CAS MSG” on the PFDs mean? How do you tell which message(s) are different?(2-04-10 pp. 4, 15) There is a difference in the messages being sent by IC600-1 & IC600-2. QRH: Select EICAS on both MFDs & compare.
Describe the aural warning system (AWU).(2-04-15 pp. 1, 2, 4) 2 types of messages: tones & voice. Powered by 1 DC & 1 essential bus, & has 2 channels. Channel B is kept as a backup & is selected automatically if channel A fail. An “AURAL UNIT 1 CHANNEL” voice message will sound. When powered-up, an “AURAL UNIT OK”.
What items are monitored by the takeoff configuration warning system? (2-04-20 p.1) Parking brake, flaps set for takeoff, spoilers locked closed, & pitch trim green.
Describe the stall protection system (SPS).(2-04-25 p.1 rev 23 & 2-13-10 p. 3 rev 25) Consists of 1 computer box with 2 independent channels, SPS panel, 2 AOA sensors, 2 stick shaker actuators, and 1 stick pusher actuator (CA side). For stick shaker activation, 1 channel is required; 2 channels are required for stick pusher activation.
What does an “ICE/SPS SPEEDS” advisory message mean on the EICAS?(2-04-25 p. 2) SPS will activate at reduced angle of attack for flaps 9 & 22°. This occurs whenever ice detection occurs in-flight. (Compensation is inhibited during the first 5 min of flight & reset on ground after test only).
What does an “SPS ADVANCED” caution message mean on the EICAS?(2-04-20 p. 4) The stick shaker and pusher activation is set to higher speeds due to a flap disagree, failure in one SPS channel, AHRS, ADC, air/ground, or landing gear indication disagreements.
What inhibits the stick pusher?(2-04-25 p. 2) On ground (except test), < .5 G, quick disconnect button pressed, > 200 KIAS, if any SPS cutout buttons are released, < 200 ft AGL (or if the RA has failed 10 s delay after takeoff), or if ≥ 1 channel is inoperative.
Describe the SPS test function.(2-04-25 p. 2) The test button illuminates when the system has not been tested, or after unsuccessful tests. The SPS operates normally if not tested. It is not possible to test the system in-flight.
What are the color codes of the pitch limit indicator (PLI)? Green: 10 to 5° Amber: 5 to 2° Red: < 2°.(2-04-25 p. 8)
Will terrain display on the MFD if the radar is deferred? (2-04-30 p. 1) The radar has no input. The terrain information is a database.
What bank angle will trigger a “bank angle” aural warning? (2-04-30 p. 24) 6° at the surface to 40° at 150 ft, increased sensitivity with roll rate.
What does solid red mean on the EGPWS?(2-04 30 p. 30) Warning terrain. (Approximately 30 s from impact.)
What does solid yellow mean on the EGPWS?(2-04 30 p. 30) Caution terrain.(Approximately 60 s from impact.)
What do high-density red dots mean on the EGPWS? (2-04 30 p. 30) Terrain > 2,000 ft above the aircraft.
What do high density yellow dots mean on the EGPWS? (2-04 30 p. 30) Terrain between 1,000 to 2,000 ft above the airplane
What do medium density yellow dots mean on the EGPWS? (2-04 30 p. 30) Terrain between 500 ft (250 ft with gear down) below to 1,000 ft above the airplane.
What do medium density green dots mean on the EGPWS? (2-04 30 p. 30) Terrain between 500 ft (250 ft with gear down) below to 1,000 ft below the airplane.
What do light density green dots mean on the EGPWS? (2-04 30 p. 30) Terrain that is 1,000 to 2,000 ft below the airplane.
What terrain is not shown on the EGPWS?(2-04 30 p. 30) Terrain that is more than 2,000 ft below the airplane, terrain that has an elevation within 400 ft of the runway elevation of the nearest airport, & terrain not in EGPWS database is magenta.
What will trigger an amber windshear & what will you see? A red windshear? (2-04-35 p. 4) Amber: Triggered by a sudden increase in performance. CAUTION WINDSHEAR aural warning & amber “WDSHEAR” appears in the upper left of PFDs. Red: Triggered by a sudden decrease in performance. WINDSHEAR(X 3) aural warning & a red WDSHEAR appears on PFDs.
How is windshear escape guidance mode entered?(2-04-35 p. 6) Automatically: (1) When in GA or TO mode & any windshear condition is detected.(2) > 78° TLA & red windshear is detected.Manually: By pressing the GA button when any windshear condition is detected.
What does the flight director do once windshear escape guidance mode is entered. (2-04-35 p. 6) A green WSHR in the vertical field & ROLL in the lateral field on both PFDs. The flt director provide a recovery pitch attitude. other flight director modes are canceled & some vertical modes are inhibited: altitude pre-select, go-around, & takeoff.
What are the 3 priorities of the windshear escape guidance mode? (2-04-35 p. 6) (1) Prevent the airplane from stalling.(2) Prevent the airplane from descending.(3) Prevent the airplane from exceeding VMO.
When will the airplane exit windshear escape guidance? (2-04-35 p. 7 rev 23) > 1500 AGL, another vertical mode is selected (it will just re-enter automatically if windshear is still detected), invalid AHRS, ADC, or stall protection computer.
How much time or distance does a TCAS caution or warning give before a conflict? (2-04-40 p. 02 rev 23) Caution: 35 to 45 s.Warning: 20 to 30 s.
When are TAs inhibited? RAs?(2-04-40 p. 9) TAs: < 1000 ft descending, < 1200 ft climbing.RAs: < 400 ft descending, < 600 ft climbing.
What are the relative altitude ranges of the TCAS?(2-04-40 p.10) Normal: ±1200 ft in auto, ±2700 ft in manual.Above: +7000 -2700 ft, Below: -7000 +2700 ft.
What does a hollow cyan diamond on the TCAS mean? A solid cyan diamond? A solid amber circle? A solid red square? (2-04-40 pp. 39-41) Hollow cyan diamond: An aircraft within the selected range / altitude. Solid cyan diamond: < 6.5 nm & < 1,200 ft vertically.Solid amber circle: A TA.Solid red square: An RA.
Describe the main batteries & their normal operation.(2-05-05 p.1) Two 24 V DC, 44 amp-hr, ni-ca batts. norm ops, batt 1 is conn in // with gens 1 & 3 (net1). Batt 2 is conn in // with gens 2 & 4 (net2). Batt 2 supp pwr for APU start, while batt 1 is isol from the load buses to provide stable pwr to equip.
Why does this aircraft have NI-CAD batteries?(AC65-9) NiCad batteries are able to deliver large amounts of current & maintain steady voltage until almost entirely discharged.
Can the GPU operate in parallel with the aircraft batteries or generators? No, it has priority over any other power source while energizing the aircraft. (2-05-05 p. 5)
How long can the batteries supply power for essential loads in case of an all-generator-failure condition? How many APU starts are allowed in that amount of time? ≥ 40 min (includes 3 APU start attempts).(2-05-05 p. 6 rev. 31)
Describe the main generators. (2-05-05 p. 6 rev 22) 4 independent, engine-driven, brushless generators. Each generator is controlled by a dedicated generator control unit (GCU). The generators will come on-line when the engines stabilize > 56.4% N2.
Describe the backup battery & its function.(2-05-05 p. 7; 2-05-20 p. 5) One 24 V DC 5 amp-hr sealed lead acid battery provides stabilized power for the operation of the GCU’s protective function, even in case of short circuit, when the system voltage may drop to zero. It also powers the DC distribution (EDL).
When will the APU generator normally come on-line after start? (2-05-05 p.8) 95 % RPM + 7 s.
What does the APU GEN button do, and what is its normal position? (2-05-05 p. 8) Connects the APU generator to the central bus, normally IN & dark.
When all generators are operating, which bus is the APU generator connected to? Connected in parallel with the generators supplying DC bus 2 via the central bus. (2-05-05 p. 8-9)
What is the purpose of the central DC bus? Where does the central bus get power in an electrical emergency? (2-05-05 p. 9 & 2-05-10 p. 6, 6b, & 25) Conn the APU gen or GPU to the load buses through the bus tie ctcrs. It also prov bus interconn in case of gen unavailability. In an electrical emergency it is powered by battery 2 through hot bus 2 (i.e., BC 2 stays closed so the APU can be started).
Describe the in-flight DC electrical distribution with 4 or 5 generators on-line. 3 generators? 1 or 2 only?Loss of all generators?(2-05-05 p. 9 & 2-05-10 p. 6, 6A, & 25) 4 or 5: Two networks with all buses 3: 1 net interconn through bus tie ctcr with all buses energized.1 or 2: 1 net no shed bus(in-flight) or with the shed buses on the ground when in OVRD.No generators: Batt energize ESS buses & central bus only.
What is the ground service bus?(2-05-05 p. 10) Powers the cabin lts, lav lts, galley lts, courtesy, cockpit lts, baggage & service compart lts. Its functions are independent of the EDL. It is energized by connecting the GPU plug to the airplane when the batt & gens are not connected to the buses.
What does the AC electrical system consist of?(2-05-05 p. 12) 1 250 VA/400 Hz single phase static inverter that converts 28 V DC from DC bus 1 into 115 V-AC power.
What systems use 115 V-AC power?(2-05-05 p. 13 & RGS) GPWS, & windshear computer. (TCAS II is no longer on the 115 V-AC bus.)
In an abnormal transfer to electrical emergency condition (“ELEC EMERG ABNORM” EICAS caution), can the DC buses be powered? (2-05-10 p. 6B) Yes. They could be powered by their associated DC generators, but will remain isolated from the central bus. The essential DC buses would be powered by the batteries only (batteries would go dead).
During APU starting, what is the status of BC 1?BTC 1? BTC 2? (2-05-10 p. 14) Open: BC 1 Closed: BTC 1 & 2
When the GPU is energizing the airplane, are the batteries being charged? (2-05-10 p. 17) Batteries are not charging because BC 1 & 2 are open.
If generator 1 is offline & the APU is running, what is the position of BTC 1? BTC 2? Open: BTC 2Closed: BTC 1 (2-05-10 p. 21)
What is the position of BTC 1, BTC 2, BC 1, SBC 1, SBC 2, BBR 1, BBR 2, EIC, EBC 1, & EBC 2 with loss of all generators?(2-05-10 P. 6 & 25) Open: BTC 1 & 2, BC1, SBC 1 & 2, BBR 1 & 2.Closed: EIC, EBC 1 & 2.BTC= bus tie cont, BC= batt cont, SBC= shed bus cont, BBR= backup bus relay, EIC= ess interconnection cont, EBC= ess bus cont
What does the essential power button do & what is its normal position?(2-05-15 p. 3) Overrides the automatic transfer to the electrical emergency circuitry, connecting the batteries directly to the essential buses, regardless of any other command from the EDL. Normally out, dark and guarded.
Where does the “GPU AVAIL” inscription in the GPU button get its electrical power & what does it mean?(2-05-15 p. 3) Powered from the GPU plug meaning the GPU is properly connected and ready to power the aircraft.
Where are the hot battery powered circuit breakers located? (2-05-20 p. 2-3) Row A (bottom) of the overhead panel, on each side of the center break.
What items are powered by the hot buses?(2-05-20 p. 4-6) Hot bus 1: ELT, fuel SOV 1, hyd SOV 1, squib 1A, squib 2A, & refueling panel.Hot bus 2: Cabin door hyd valve, courtesy lights, fuel SOV 2, hyd SOV 2, squib 1B, & squib 2B.
What happens when the shed bus selector knob is put in the OVRD position? (2-05-15 p. 4) Closes the shed bus contactors (SBCs) when the airplane is on the ground with ≥ 1 operating generator.
What equipment will work on the ground only with the shed buses switch in the OVRD position when 1 or 2 generators are operating (i.e., What Items are powered by the shed buses)? (2-05-20 p. 4-6) Recirculation fans, nose landing & taxi lights, CD player & pre-recorded announcements, windshield heat 2, reading lights / attendant call, galley, flashlight chargers, & SELCAL system.
What powers the fuel pumps?(2-05-20 p. 4-6) Pump A: On-side ESS DC bus.Pump B: Cross-side ESS DC bus.Pump C: On-side DC bus.
What powers the wing landing lights? On-side DC buses. (2-05-20 p. 4-6)
Where does the steering get electrical power? DC Bus 2 (2-05-20 p.4-6)
What powers the pitch trim system?(2-05-20 p. 4-6) Primary: DC Bus 1, Backup: Essential DC Bus 2
Describe the courtesy & airstairs lights.(2-06-10 p. 2) Main door light (main door ceiling panel), service door light, stairway lights (each step), cockpit step light (red light in the step).
What lights are illuminated with the courtesy light switch ON and the main door closed? Where do these lights get power?(2-06-10 p. 4 & 2-05-20 p. 4-6) Over-door light only. Courtesy lights get power from hot bus 2 or the ground service bus if the airplane is de-powered and the “GPU AVAIL” inscription is illuminated.
Describe the emergency lighting system.(2-06-20 p. 1) Internal & external lights provide illumination for cabin evacuation. Powered only by 4 dedicated battery packs charged through the essential bus. Batteries provide power for about 15 min.
How many exterior emergency lights are there?(2-06-20 p. 1) Exterior:• 2 lights on each side of the wing-to-fuselage fairing illuminate the wing escape route & ground area.• 1 main & 1 service door light illuminates associated areas when doors are open.
How many interior emergency lights are there?(2-06-20 p. 1) 24: 1 cockpit(ceil), 4 ceiling cabin lgt. Main, galley door & typ 3 exit lgts: 4 lights from the main aisle to each exit openings. Floor lights: Either photo or electro strips to identify the emergency esc path. Lit exit signs near each exit.
Describe the controls for the emergency lights.(2-06-20 p. 4-6) Cockpit: ON: Emerg lgts ON.ARM: Emerg lgts in stby mode. Lgts off & batts being charge. Illum auto is case of elect emerg. OFF: Emerg lgts OFF, batts not charg. FA’s: NORM: Slvd to cockpit switch.ON: Emerg lights ON regard of the cockpit switch pos.
How does the engine & APU fire/overheat detection system work?(2-07-10 p.1) Sens tube contain a fixed vol of gas (He) and a gas-impregnated (H) core. The HE gas prov overheat sensing. The core senses hi-intens heating or fire. The heat incr the vol(press) of the gas and a switch closes. If the tube fails, a caut mess is present.
What happens if an “APU FIRE” warning message is on the EISAS in ground safe mode? How could the APU fire extinguisher bottle be discharged?(2-05-20 p. 4-6 & 2-07-10 p. 1) The APU will shut down after 10 s. The batteries must be turned on before the fire bottle will discharge because it is on ESS DC bus 2. (i.e., Only hot buses are energized as soon as the APU shuts down in ground safe mode.)
How is the extinguishing agent discharged?(2-07-10 p. 4) Breaking the extinguishing bottle’s seal through an electrically activated cartridge (squib) installed in the discharge valve.
What happens when an engine fire extinguishing handle is pulled? Rotated?(2-07-10 p. 7) Pulled: Closes the fuel, hydraulic, bleed air, & lip anti-icing shutoff valves of the associated engine.Rotated: When rotated counterclockwise or clockwise, it respectively discharges bottles A or B into the associated engine.
Describe the fire detection system test button.(2-07-10 p. 7) Test is success if the follow condit occur: EICAS Warn: ENG1 (2) FIRE, APU FIRE, & BAGG SMOKE. EICAS Caut: E1 (2) FIREDET FAIL & APU FIREDET FAIL. Fire handles illum.Bag fire ext button illum. Bag compart fan deactivates. Fire bell.
What happens if the APU is running and the fire detection system test button is pressed for ≥ 10 s.? APU shuts down if on the ground.(2-07-10 p. 7)
What do you do if you test the fire detection system and the BAGG EXTG button remains lit? (2-07-10 pp. 7-8) The test button might not have been held for ≥ 2 s. Wait ≥ 6 s and repeat the test.
Describe the lavatory waste fire extinguisher? Temperature sensitive heads on the bottle discharging tube outlets melt. No indication in the cockpit that the bottle has discharged. (2-07-15 p.1)
Describe the baggage fire extinguishing system.(2-07-20 p. 1) 2 fire ext bott are inst in the rear elect compart. 1 high disc bott fills the compart instantly, while 1 metered bott prov the req lvl of ext agent for 50 min. Upon smoke detect, the smoke detect deactiv the bag compart fan, illum the BAGG EXTG button.
What does it mean when BAGG EXTG button is lit? Either smoke was detected inside the baggage compartment, or that the baggage compartment fan has been deactivated (or failed). (2-07-20 p. 4)
Describe the fuel tank vent system.(2-08-05 p. 2) Prevents damage to the wing due excess press and to prov ram air press in the tanks. sys has a vent tank and a NACA scoop. The vent tank in the wing is conn to the fuel tank by 2 float vlvs. The 2 valve are such that 1 vent is open. Vent tank air by NACA.
Will the engines keep running if there is no power for any electric fuel pumps? (2-08-05 p. 3) Yes. The engine driven pumps are able to provide suction feed up to a maximum of 25,000 ft.
Describe the operation of the electric fuel pumps.(2-08-05 p. 3) 1 pump is normally operating on each side and the remaining pumps are on standby.
If the engine is running on pump A & it fails, what will you see on the MFD fuel page? Will there be an EICAS message? (2-08-05 p. 3 & RGS) When the fuel press< 6.5 psi, the othr pumps are auto ON & cycl on & off until 1 of them is select. A, B, & C will app on the MFD until the press rern to norm; pump A will appear unill the pressure falls & the cycle repeats. E1(2) FUEL LO PRESS.
Where does the APU normally draw fuel from? The right tank. (2-08-05 p. 4)
How does the fuel get from the tanks to the FPMU or APU?(2-08-05 p. 2, 5-6) flows from the tip to root. collect box in the root keeps the pump inlets submerg. The box is kept full by ejector pump. Then the fuel is press by 1(3)pumps and go past the check valve, crossfeed valve, & fuel shutoff valves. then goes to FPMU or the APU.
What do the flame arrestors in the fuel tanks do?(RGS & 2-08-05 p. 6) Prevent a fire outside the tank from getting inside.
When will an “E1 (2) FUEL LO LEVEL” warning be on the EICAS? (2-08-05 p. 7) Remaining fuel quantity in the associated tank ranges from 463 to 584 lb in level flight.
When will a “FUEL TANK LO TEMP” EICAS caution be generated? (2-08-05 p. 7) -40°C in the fuel tank
When will a “FUEL IMBALANCE” caution be on the EICAS? (2-08-05 p. 7) Quantity in one tank differs by ≥ 800 lb from the other tank. The message disappears when ≤ 100 lb.
When will an “E1 (2) FUEL LO PRESS” or an “APU FUEL LO PRESS” caution be on the EICAS? When the engine or APU fuel pressure < 6.5 psi and is running. (2-08-05 p. 7)
What are the pressure ranges for pressurized refueling or defueling?(2-08-10 pp. 1-2) Refueling: 35 to 50 psi. Defueling: Can be done either by the aircraft electric pumps in fuel tanks or by suction (4 psi max) provided by an external source.
If de-fueling, how should the fuel switches panel be configured? (2-08-10 p. 2) XFEED to LOW 2, tank 1 pump ON
How many fuel measuring sticks are there?(2-08-15 p. 2-3) LR (stub tanks): 3 measuring sticks.EP (no stub tanks): 2 measuring sticks.
What type of faults will cause an APU shutdown in flight?(2-09-05 p. 2) ESU (or FADEC) failure, loss of ESU (or FADEC) signal, overspeed, underspeed, loss of speed data, external short, or failure to: start, light, or accelerate.
What types of faults will shut down the APU after touchdown?(2-09-05 p. 1) All of the faults for in-flight plus: fire (after ten s), over temperature, high oil temperature, low oil pressure, oil pressure switch short, loss of EGT, or bleed valve opening.
What does the APU STOP button do?(2-09-05 p. 8) T-62T-40C11: A signal is sent to the ESU to simulate an overspeed condition.T-62T-40C14: A stop request signal sent to its FADEC.
What are the APU internal fuel valves, and when do they open during start?(2-09-05 p. 8) -11: Start solenoid valve @ 3% (0% in-flight), closes at 70%. Main fuel solenoid valve @ 14%, max fuel solenoid valve opens 7 s after 95% rpm.-14: No start fuel solenoid valve. Main valve opens at 3% (or 0% in-flight) the rest is the same as above.
What happens when the APU fuel shutoff button is pressed? The APU fire extg button?(2-09-05 p.10 & 2-07-10 p. 7) APU fuel shutoff: Fuel is shut off downstream of the electric fuel pump. APU fire extg: Fire extinguisher is also discharged.
Describe the engines.(2-10-05 p. 1) Rolls-Royce AE3007 high bypass ratio (5-1), two-spool axial flow turbofan engines.
How much thrust do these engines produce (static, sea level)? (2-10-05 p. 1) EP: 7426 lb to ISA + 15°CLR: 7426 lb to ISA + 30°C
Describe the main engine assemblies.(2-10-05 pp. 2-3)fan module 24 blade single-stage fan compresses the air as it enters the fan case inlet. Core stream air passes through the compressor (≈ 20%); the remaining air is slit into the bypass duct.
Describe the main engine assemblies.(2-10-05 pp. 2-3)HP compressor 14 stages of indivd wheel assemblies, compressor shaft, compressor-to-turbine shaft, and compressor tiebolt.
Describe the main engine assemblies.(2-10-05 pp. 2-3)Bleed Air Bleed air tapped off the 9th & 14th stages. A combustion liner assembly mixes air & fuel to support combustion & delivers a uniform, high-temp gas flow to the turbine.
Describe the main engine assemblies.(2-10-05 pp. 2-3)Turbine 2-stg high-press turb: the gas flow coming from the combust liner into usable energy to drive the HP compres. 3-stage low-press turb: Down from the HPT & takes energy from the gas path to drive the fan. LPT is connx to the fan by a shaft thru HP spool.
Describe the main engine assemblies.(2-10-05 pp. 2-3)Exhaust cone & mixer: The forced air mixer combines bypass & core gas streams to allow them to exit at relatively close speeds (quieter).
Describe the main engine assemblies.(2-10-05 pp. 2-3)Accessory gearbox Driven by the HP spool via the tower shaft & provides driving pads for the following engine accessories: fuel pump & metering unit (FPMU), PMA, & oil pump. And for the following airplane accessories: hydraulic pump, generators, & pneumatic starter.
What happens if the tower shaft breaks? (RGS) All systems on the accessory gearbox will be lost (i.e., the engine will not run).
How many N1 sensors on each engine? 2 (2-10 -40 p. 7 & RGS)
Describe the functions of the engine fuel system.(2-10-10 p. 1) Filters & meters fuel for combustion. Secondary functions include providing pressurized fuel to activate the CVG system, & a cooling medium for lubrication oil.
Describe the FPMU.(2-10-10 pp. 1-3) FPMU is a unit that fuel pumping, filtering, metering functions, & also controls the CVG. It operates under the control of the FADECs to control & supply the fuel to the nozzles at the correct pressure & flow rate for engine start, operation, & shutdown.
How does the fuel get through the FPMU to the fuel nozzles?(2-10-10 pp. 1-3) Through the centrifugal pump to the FCOC, filter, gear pump, either CVG or fuel metering valve, pressurizing valve, to the fuel nozzles.
Describe the FPMU’s pumping system.(2-10-10 p. 1) contains a LP centrifugal pump & a high pressure gear pump. The centrifugal pump raises the pressure of the incoming fuel high enough to allow for pressure losses in the FCOC & filter while meeting the inlet pressure requirements of the gear pump.
Describe the FPMU’s fuel filter.(2-10-10 p. 1) Upstream of the gear pump & downstream of the FCOC. Protects the pump metering unit components & fuel nozzles from contaminants. A bypass valve allows for continued fuel flow if the filter is blocked.
How does the FPMU eliminate entrapped air or fuel vapor?(2-10-10 p. 1) There is an air vent valve at the gear pump discharge. The vent valve stays closed whenever the solenoid isn’t energized to prevent fuel leakage through the vent system if the fuel pumps are running & the engine is stopped.
Describe the FPMU’s fuel metering & pressurizing valve.(2-10-10p. 2) The fuel metering vlv is controll by the FADEC & controls fuel dist from the gear pump to the fuel nozzles. Downstream of the metering vlv, a press vlv (PRV) gens adeq system press for the funct of the main metering vlv & press drop servos & CVG hyd act.
How is the engine shut down?(2-10-10 p. 2) A stop input from the cockpit through the FADEC commands the latching fuel shutoff valve which commands the pressurizing valve (PRV).
Describe the FCOC.(2-10-10 p. 2) Fuel flows from the FPMU’s centrifugal pump to the FCOC where it simultaneously cools the engine oil & warms the fuel.
When does oil bypass the FCOC? Fuel?(2-10-10 p. 2) Oil: To prevent the fuel from being heating > 93.3°C (200°F). Oil is also bypassed if the differential oil pressure is more than 50 psi (e.g., hung or cold starts). Fuel: Never
Describe the CVG.(2-10-10 p. 2 & 2-10-05 p. 2) Stg 1-5 & inlet guide vanes of the compress have compress var geo. CVG stator are drive by servo controll by the FADECs. The FADEC senses the vane posit & by means of fuel press from the FPMU, cmd posit the CVG stators to setting.
What is the purpose of CVG?(2-10-10 p. 2) Optimizes the compressor efficiency of steady-state conditions & adequate stall margins during transients.
How many fuel nozzles are there? (2-10-10 p. 2) 16
Describe the lubrication system.(2-10-15 p. 1) Self-contained, pressure regulated & recirculating dry sump system.
What is the difference between a “dry sump” and a “wet sump” oil system? (AC65-12) A dry sump system stores the oil in a tank mounted on or near the engine while a wet sump system stores the oil in the actual engine.
What does the lubrication system supply oil to? Oil coolers, engine sumps, & accessory gear box.
Describe the main subsystems of the oil system.(2-10-15 pp. 1-4)Lubricating oil supply Oil is supplied to the lube & scavenge pump from the oil tank & is pumped through a filter. Then cooled while passing through the ACOC & FCOC.
Describe the main subsystems of the oil system.(2-10-15 pp. 1-4)Engine sumps 4 engine sumps (fan, front, center, & aft) encompass 5 main-shaft bearings, 4 bevel bearings, & 6 carbon seals.
Describe the main subsystems of the oil system.(2-10-15 pp. 1-4)Lubricating oil scavenge system Air & oil are removed from each of the sumps & directed to individual scavenge inlets on the oil pump. Each sump inlet has a debris monitor w/ magnetic chip collector & screen to protect pump. Gearbox sump inlet has a screen only.
Describe the main subsystems of the oil system.(2-10-15 pp. 1-4)Lubricating oil vent sumps&tank are vent to the acc gearbox. Tank is vent thru a core-ext vlv with a tank-press vlv. The gearbox acts as oil/air sep remove any oil cont in the vent air. Air vented by the gearbox breather is cond thru a xfer tube & into the core exhaust.
Describe the main subsystems of the lubricating oil supply(2-10-15 pp. 1-4)Oil tank Holds 12 qt. It has an oil level sight gage & a low level warning sensor (i.e., a switch that is actuated with 5 qt of usable oil or less). A screen on the outlet and a chip detector plug at the tank bottom prevent debris from recirculating.
Describe the main subsystems of the lubricating oil supply(2-10-15 pp. 1-4)Lube & scavenge pump: pumps are all mounted in a single integral unit. A single shaft drives 6 pumping elements. 1 pressure pumping element pumps oil to the system & 5 scavenge pumping elements pump oil from the 4 engine sumps and the access gear box back to the tank.
Describe the main subsystems of the lubricating oil supply(2-10-15 pp. 1-4)Oil Filter A replaceable filter and mechanical & electrical impending-bypass indicators. Screened bypass valve opens during cold starts or filter blockage.
Describe the main subsystems of the lubricating oil supply(2-10-15 pp. 1-4)Air-cooled oil cooler (ACOC) & FCOC Surface type heat exchanger with a single plate-fin oil section. Filtered, pressurized oil enters the manifold & flows through the air-cooled heat exchanger. Cold oil can bypass ACOC. Then oil goes to the FCOC.
Why is the oil tank pressurized? (2-10-15 p. 1) Tank pressurization valve keeps pressure in the tank. Ensures an adequate oil supply to the lube & scavenge pump & to provide proper oil pressure at altitude.
What protects the tank from overpressure? Externally vented pressure relief valve. (2-10-15 p. 1)
Where is the FCOC/ACOC located?(2-10-10 p. 2) FCOC: Externally on the bottom of outer bypass duct. ACOC: In the bypass duct.
Which FADEC controls the CVG actuator? Either (2-10-10 p. 3)
What is the purpose of the compressor acceleration bleed valve (CABV)? (2-10-20 p. 1) The CABV bleeds air from the 9th stage to assist in reaching idle RPM.
Describe the PMAs.(2-10-25 p. 1, 2-10-30 p. 1, & 2-10-40 p.1) The pri pwr for ign & eng ctrl sys is prov by a perm magnet alt (PMA) that is drivn by the access gear box. Pwr the Ign abv 10% N2 & FADECs abv 50% N2. PMAs have single-phase windings, for each ign & each FADEC. also pwrs the thrust buttn in elect emerg.
Where do the thrust lever potentiometers get electrical power? (RGS) From the FADECs.
If Ignition is left ON with engines shut down will the igniters generate spark? (2-10-25 p. 1) No, the PMA (10% N2) is the only source of power for the igniters.
How do the FADECs control igniters when in AUTO mode? (2-10-30 p.1) During a ground start, only the FADEC in control activates its associated igniter. The igniter is deactivated after start. The auto-relight function activates both igniters.
What are the pneumatic sources for the air turbine starter (ATS)? How else cam the engine be started?(2-10-30 p. 2) APU, cross bleed from other engine, air cart, & air bottle. A windmill start can be performed in accordance with the QRH.
Where are the engine oil pressure & temperature sensors mounted? (2-10-35 p. 1) On the FCOC mounted on a single housing. The low pressure sensor is also mounted on the FCOC.
When will an “E1 (2) FUEL LO TEMP” caution be on the EICAS? (2-10-35 p. 2 & 2-10-50 p. 16) When the fuel temp in the engine drops below 5°C.
What are the vibration sensors? (2-10-35 p. 2) They are accelerometers.
Describe full authority digital electronic control (FADEC).(2-10-40 p. 1) Each engine is controlled by 1 of the 2 FADECs at one time. All signals between each FADEC and its respective engine and the airplane are completely redundant & isolated. The FADECs have 2 discrete outputs: engine running/shutdown & ECS OFF signal.
What powers the FADECs & the ignition system in case of PMA failure? Will an engine run if the PMA fails?(2-10-25 p. 1 & 2-10-40 p.1) On-side and cross-side essential DC buses for the FADEC. If the PMA fails there will not be any spark to the igniters. It will continue running, but won’t start
Are the FADECs on one engine connected to the FADECs on the other engine? (2-10-40 p. 1) Yes. They communicate information required for the ATTCS system and thrust reverser interlock. Each FADEC is connected to 1 of the 2 FADECs on the other engine via a data bus.
When 1 FADEC is controlling the engine, what is the other FADEC doing? (2-10-40 p. 2) The same thing as the active FADEC, but its output drivers that command the engine are powered off.
When will control be automatically transferred to the standby FADEC? (2-10-40 pp. 2, 7) When the controlling FADEC detects a fault that will result in degraded engine operation or will render it unable to control the engine. Otherwise if a fault is detected it will borrow data from the standby FADEC.
What is the N1 target calculation? (2-10-40 p. 4) The FADEC calculates the max available thrust in a given mode, airspeed, ambient conditions, and bleed air configuration.
What is ground idle N2? What is flight idle N2?How long does it take to get to max thrust from idle?(2-10-40 p. 5) Ground idle: ≈ 64% N2 Flight idle: ≈ 68% N2Idle to full go-around thrust in 8 s or less ≤ 9500 ft.
What inhibits the “anti-ice ON” flight idle thrust rescheduling of the FADECs? Gear down & locked below 15,000 ft.(2-10-40 p. 5)
Gear down & locked below 15,000 ft.(2-10-40 p. 5) Overspeed: If the upper limits of N1 / N2 are exceeded, the FADEC initiates a shutdown. Underspeed: the FADEC commands a shutdown if N2 drops below 54% N2 to prevent an overtemperature condition from damaging the turbine.
When will the FADEC try to relight the engine?(2-10-40 p. 6) Both ignitions systems are energized when flameout is detected until engine N2 drops below 53%.
If both N1 sensors fail, what happens?(2-10-40 p. 7) FADECs store data on the correlation between N1 & N2 & use N2 to control the engine if N1 is not available.
What N2 speed causes the FADEC to assume the engine has started? That it has stopped? 56.4% accelerating53.0% decelerating (2-10-40 p. 7)
What happens when reset is selected on the FADEC control knob? (2-10-40 p. 8) It clears any inactive faults (a fault not currently being detected).
What happens if both FADECs fail? The engine control system shuts off fuel flow & moves the CVGs to the closed position. (2-10-50 p. 2)
The FADECs will command T/O-1 power under what conditions?(2-10-50 p. 3) (1) Default (2) Gear down & locked below 15,000 ft (3) T/O button pushed with WOW & TLA < 50° or > 1700 ft above takeoff alt (4) TLA beyond the detent (5) ATTCS triggered in ALT T/O-1 mode
What triggers the automatic takeoff thrust control system (ATTCS)?(2-10-50 p. 10) (1) TLA on 1 engine reduced. (2) Any FADEC receives OEI signal. (3) ATTCS should be armed but isn’t or should disarm but hasn’t.
What are the ATTCS arming conditions?(2-10-50 p. 10) (1) Both engines ATTCS capable.(2) Associated TLA ≥ 45°
What parameters must be met before the FADEC will allow CON mode? (2-10-50 p. 6) (1) Alt > 300 ft above takeoff, gear not down, or(2) Alt > 1700 ft above takeoff, any configuration.
What parameters must be met for the FADECs to allow CLB or CRZ modes, if selected?(2-10-50 p. 6) (1) > 500 above takeoff altitude, gear not down, & both engines operating, or(2) > 1,700 above takeoff altitude, any configuration, & both engines operating.
Where do you get the reference takeoff temp (REF TO TEMP) to store in the MFD? ATIS, ATCT, or other accurate source.(2-10-50 p. 11)
What is T2SYN? What is the acceptable variation between REF TO TEMP & the T2SYN? T2SYN is the synthesized TAT at the engine fan inlet. The acceptable range is ±10°C. (2-10-50 p. 12)
What is meant by engine takeoff data displayed in amber? Replaced by amber dashes? Cyan?(2-10-50 p. 13 & 2-10-60 p. 5) Amber: FADEC has not yet accepted data.Amber dashes: Data rejected by the FADECs.Cyan: Data accepted by the FADECs.
Describe a normal engine start sequence(2-10-50 p. 14) FADECs A & B alt start. The FADEC activ ignit ≈ 14% N2 set to AUTO. (in flight start both ignit 10% N2.) The fuel sol vlv opns ≈ 28.5% N2 (12s after ign). When the start is done, the FADEC deactiv the ign (in AUTO) and clses the start ctrl vlv.
Since the engines have overtemperature protection on start, do you still have to guard the start? Yes. The engine won’t shut down until after the limitation is exceeded. (2-10-50 p.14 rev 30 & RGS)
What does an “ATTCS NO MARGIN” warning message on the EICAS mean? (2-10-50 p. 16) There is not enough temperature reserve in the engine(s) to allow T/O-1 power if ATTCS is triggered.
What are the cyan “T”s & digits on the EICAS? The N1 target digital & analog indication (2-10-60 p. 5)
What are the green pointers on the EICAS? The green digits? (2-10-60 p. 6) Actual N1 analog pointer & actual N1 digital indication.
What happens to the N1 analog scale if the 100% redline is exceeded? (2-10-60 p. 6) The scale automatically expands to 110%
What are the green triangles on the EICAS?(2-10-40 p. 4 & 2-10-60 p. 8) N1 request bug, driven by TLA
If you get to the plane on a very cold morning & the oil temperature indication for engine 1 has been replaced by amber dashes, what might be the problem? The temperature might be below its lower limit value. (2-10-60 p. 7)
How much oil will each engine indicate on the MFD? When is the indication green? Amber?(2-10-15 p. 1 & 2-10-60 p.10) Right engine: 0 to 14 qt.Left engine: 0 to 13 qt.Green: ≥ 6 qt. Amber: < 6 qt.
What lock protection do the thrust reversers have?(2-10-70 p. 1) 3 locking sys prevnt inadvert deploy. Mech locked in posit by pri & scndary locks. The pri lock holds doors stowed. The pri & scndary locks are elect commd/ctrl & hyd pwr to unlock. The tertiary lock is elect commd, ctrl, and pwr. prov indep lock sys.
How are the thrust reverser doors deployed?(2-10-70 p. 1) Once selected, the mechanical locks are removed and hydraulic pressure is deployed to deploy the doors. The doors rotate about a fixed axis controlled by extension and retraction of the hydraulic door actuators.
When will the FADEC allow max reverse?(2-10-70 p. 2) (1) WOW from both main gear & main wheels > 25 kt. (2) WOW from both main gear & nose gear.
What happens after a single-engine landing and you set both thrust levers to max reverse?(2-10-70 p. 2) The FADEC will not command reverse thrust unless 1 thrust lever only is set below idle with OEI or an inoperative thrust reverser.
What happens if a reverser deploys in-flight? FADEC reduces thrust to idle. (2-10-70 p. 3)
What is powered by hydraulic system 1? System 2? Both systems?(2-11-05 p. 1) Both systems: Ailerons, rudder.System 1: Landing gear, steering, inboard spoilers, outboard brakes, reverser 1, main door.System 2: Outboard spoilers, inboard brakes, emergency/parking brake, & reverser 2.
Describe the hydraulic system.(2-11-05 pp. 1-2) 2 independent systems. Each consists of a hydraulic fluid reservoir, a manifold, 1 shutoff valve, & 1 accumulator. Each system is powered by 1 engine driven & 1 electric pump. System 1 has a priority valve (the only difference between system 1 & 2).
Describe the main components of the hydraulic system.(2-11-05 pp. 2-4)Reservoir Fluid is pressurized to avoid pump cavitation. It is pressurized by fluid drained from the pressure line (bootstrapping).
Describe the main components of the hydraulic system.(2-11-05 pp. 2-4)Shutoff valve Cuts off hydraulic fluid between the reservoir & the engine-driven pump. Closed either by the engine fire handle or by pressing the ENG PUMP SHUTOFF button.
Describe the main components of the hydraulic system.(2-11-05 pp. 2-4)Engine driven pump Provides variable displacement at 3000 psi. It generates hydraulic pressure whenever the engine is running.
Describe the main components of the hydraulic system.(2-11-05 pp. 2-4)Electric motor-driven pump Provides 2900 psi at a lower capacity than the engine-driven pump.
Describe the main components of the hydraulic system.(2-11-05 pp. 2-4)Manifold: The manifold provides the following functions (1)Fluid filtering (both pressure & return lines)(2)Overpressure relief (both engine & electric pumps)(3)Pressure indications (both engine & electric pumps)
Describe the main components of the hydraulic system.(2-11-05 pp. 2-4)Manifold: Fluid goes frm the pump & flows to the manifold, it’s filtered & routed to a/c systems. Check vlv prevents fluid frm return to the pump. A relief vlv diverts excess to the return line. The return line is filter & return to reserv.
Describe the main components of the hydraulic system.(2-11-05 pp. 2-4)Priority valve If system 1 is being powered by the electric hydraulic pump & the landing gear is commanded to retract, the valve will give priority to the flight controls & provide minimum flow to the gear. In this case the gear operates from accumulator pressure.
Describe the main components of the hydraulic system.(2-11-05 pp. 2-4)Accumulator 1 in each system. Absorbs pressure fluctuations & keeps 3000 psi available for the main door & landing gear (system 1) & the emergency/parking brake (system 2)
What causes the electric motor-driven hydraulic pump to turn on when in AUTO? Hydraulic pressure < 1600 psi or the associated engine < 56.4% N2. (2-11-05 p. 2)
What supplies the hydraulic fluid return line in the manifold?(2-11-05 p. 4) Fluid returning from a/c systems, fluid drained from the pump, fluid from the relief valve, & fluid refilled by maintenance personnel.
When will the hydraulic quantity indication on the MFD turn amber? When the fluid quantity is ≤ 1 L. (2-11-05 p. 8)
How many WOW proximity switches are there in the air/ground system? (2-12-05 p. 3) 5 total WOW proximity switches: 2 on each main wheel & 1 on nose gear.
What is the nose gear WOW proximity switch used for? (2-12-05 p. 3) Thrust reverser logic & steering control only.
How does the landing gear electronic unit (LGEU) process the main gear WOW signal information?(2-12-05 p. 3) Logic processing is in 4 indep chan & incl the posit signal & valid. If all 4 sign are valid, all are processed. If 1 signal is invalid, the remain must have majority rule. If there’s a disagree in the remain 2 sign, LGEU gives default output signal.
How many landing gear UP/DN proximity switches are there? (RGS) 12 total. 2 UP & 2 DN for each landing gear leg.
What holds the nose gear doors shut? The main gear doors? (2-12-05 p. 4) Nose gear: Pressure from hydraulic system 1.Main gear: The doors are mechanically linked to their associated main gear leg.
Describe a normal landing gear retraction.(2-12-05 pp. 4, 6) The LGEU commands the nose gear door solenoid valve & the landing gear electrovalve. This allows pressure system 1 to simultaneously reach the landing gear & down unlock actuators. All legs are then retracted into their respective wheel wells.
During retraction, when does the landing gear electrovalve de-energize? What holds the wheels in the retracted position? (2-12-05 p. 4) When the uplock boxes are actuated, the proximity switches signal the LGEU that the electrovalve may de-energize. Wheels are held up by mechanical uplocks.
What protections are given for inadvertent landing gear retraction on the ground? Can this protection be overridden?(2-12-05 p. 6) The air/ground system provides a signal to a solenoid inside the landing gear lever. This locks the lever preventing movement toward the up position. This can be overridden by pressing the lock release button next to the landing gear lever.
How are the landing gear legs locked down? (RGS) An over-center strut held in place by another over-center strut held in place by a spring.
Describe a normal landing gear extension.(2-12-05 p. 6) LGEU cmd the ldg gear elecvalve & the nosegear doors sol vlv. hyd sys 1 simul reach the lndggear & door actuat, and the up unlock hooks. the gear legs reach there down posit the dwnlock boxes are actu. prox witch sig the LGEU to shuts off the electvalve.
Describe the electrical override extension.(2-12-05 pp. 6, 10) Bypass the LGEU & actu the lndgear elecvalve & the nosegear door sol vlv. Ext thru override made in steps, 1st open the doors, ext the gear (3 posit switch). extension is done, override switch to norm; deenerg the lnd gear elecvalve and depress lines.
Describe the free-fall extension.(2-12-05 p. 7) Unlock & pull up on the. Mech act the free-fall selec valve & unlocks the uplocks for gear legs. The sel vlv iso the hyd sys press & connx the ldg gear hyd lines to return. The gear falls by gravity until they reach their associated downlock devices.
What can you do if 1 of the main wheels does not lock down after a free-fall extension? Side-slip the airplane to increase aerodynamic drag on the affected landing gear leg. (2-12-05 p. 7)
What triggers a landing gear warning when all 3 gear legs are not down? (2-10-05 p. 8) < 1200 ft, flaps 45°, or thrust levers reduced with an inoperative radio altimeter.
Can the landing gear voice message be cancelled?(2-12-05 pp. 8, 11) Pressing the landing gear warning cutout button. When RA is inoperative & flap selector lever set < 22° only.
What does a “LG/LEVER DISAGREE” warning mean on the EICAS? (2-12-05 p. 9) After 20 s of gear command, at least 1 landing gear is not in the selected position.
What does a “LG AIR/GND FAIL” caution mean on the EICAS? (2-10-05 p. 9) LGEU failure or failure of ≥ 2 WOW proximity switches.
What are the indications that the landing gear is in transit? (2-12-05 p. 12) The box is crosshatched in amber & black.
What are the indications of a landing gear lever disagreement after 20 s? (2-12-05 p. 12) The box crosshatched in red & black or by a red label (UP/DN) inside a red box.
Other than on the EICAS, where else can the landing gear down & locked indication be found? On the RMU.(2-12-05 p. 12 & 14)
Describe the normal operation of the main brake system.(2-12-10 p. 2) Ctrl & monit by the brke control unit. The BCU receiv sig frm the ped posit trans & cmd 4 brke ctrl vlvs (BCV) to mod the req press to the wheel brkes. BCVs hyd sys ctrl 1 & 4 (outbd). hyd sys 2 crtl 2 & 3 (inbd). ESS DC bus 1 outbd. ESS DC bus 2 inbd.
If the air/ground and/or UP/DN system fails, why will the pedal brakes work? (2-12-10 p. 3 rev 17) The BCU also receives a signal from the speed transducers.
When will the BCU shut down the brake hydraulic system through the shutoff valves? When there is a brake system failure or when the landing gear is retracted. (2-12-10 p. 2)
Describe the anti-skid protection.(2-12-10. p. 4) speeds ≥ 10 kt. The BCU comput the wheel spd signl from the 4 speed trans. If 1 signl falls blw the wheel spd avg, brake press is red on that side (both wheels) until the wheel spd returns to norm. Allow for max brake eff, opti brake dist, prvnt skid.
Describe the correct technique for differential braking.(2-12-10 pp. 2-3) Reduce pedal pressure on the opposite side of the turn instead of increasing it on the same side of the turn. The anti-skid function maintains the skid pressure level (≥ 10 kt) precluding the airplane from turning.
Describe the locked wheel protection function of the anti-skid.(2-12-10 p. 4) Active for wheel speeds ≥ 30 kt. It compares wheel speeds signals. If 1 wheel speed is 30% lower than another, a full brake pressure relief is commanded to the associated wheel, allowing the speed to recover.
Describe the touchdown protection incorporated with the anti-skid system? (2-12-10 p. 6) Brakes will work > 3 s from the latest WOW or after the wheels have spun up to 50 kt.
What happens to the touchdown protection if both WOW proximity switches fail in the air position?(2-12-10 p. 6) Main braking capacity will only be available for wheel speeds > 10 kt. When < 10 kt, the main brakes will not work, but the emergency/parking brake is still available.
Describe the gear-retracting-in-flight braking.(2-12-10 pp. 1, 6) Computes signals from the air/ground system & from the landing gear lever position. When the airplane is in-flight & the wheels are cmd to retract, brake press is app to the main wheels. The nose wheel stops by a mech stop within the nose wheel well.
Describe the emergency / parking brake system.(2-12-10 p. 8) Mech cmd & hyd act. separate from the BCU & has no prot funct. When the emerg/parking brake valve is act, hyd press coming from a dedicated accum hyd sys 2 is equal appl to all 4 main ldg gear brakes. Braking is proportional to the handle displacement.
What does the EICAS caution message “EMRG BRK LO PRES” mean? (2-12-10 pp. 8, 10) Enough pressure remaining in the accumulator for at least 1 application of the emergency brake.
How many complete actuations of the emergency/parking brake will a fully charged accumulator support? 6 actuations or ≥ 24 hr of parking brake actuation.(2-12-10 p. 8)
What does the “BRAKE ON” light for the emergency/parking brake mean? (2-12-10 p. 8) Pressure is being applied to the wheel brakes.
When is a “BRAKE OVERHEAT” EICAS caution message generated? (2-12-10 p. 10) LR: Any brake temperature > 450°C(EP brakes = 420°C)
What is the color coding on the brake temperature indicators? (2-12-10 p. 12) LR: Green: < 250°C, Amber: ≥ 250°C EP: Green: < 200°C, Amber: ≥ 200°C
How does the nose wheel steering system work?(2-12-15 p. 1) Electrically controlled & hydraulically operated. A potentiometer box measures the commanded displacement of the pedals & tiller. It sends a signal to the electronic control module which signals the hydraulic manifold to pressurize the steering actuator.
When is the steering electronic control module energized? The electronic control module is energized with WOW & the landing gear down & locked.
What are the nose wheel steering limits?(2-12-15 p. 1) Tiller only : 71°, Pedals only: 5°,Tiller & pedals: 76°.
What happens to the steering system if the nose wheel turns too far using pedals (2-12-15 p. 1) The system disengages (casters) at 7°. To resume steering, use the tiller.
How does the nose wheel center?(2-12-15 p. 2) Centering with the nose gear shock absorber extension is done by a cam. Also centers by caster effect.
If in a 76° turn on the ground, if the nose clears an obstacle will the wings & tail clear? Yes. The turning radius for the nose is the largest followed by the tail. (2-12-15 p. 7 rev 17)
How is pitch controlled?(2-13-10 p. 1) By mechanically-actuated elevators (with a fully duplicated set of command circuits) and an electrically-positioned horizontal stabilizer which is commanded through the pitch trim system.
What happens when the elevator disconnect handle is pulled? Can the controls be reconnected in-flight? (2-13-10 p. 2) Elevator panels are disconnected from one another (left control wheel commands the right elevator only) & the amber “ELEV DISC” light illuminates. Maintenance action on the ground is required to reconnect.
Which side is the autopilot connected to? Can you use it? (2-13-10 p. 2) The autopilot servo is on the left side. The autopilot must not be used.
How many control tabs are on the elevators? 1 servo tab & 1 spring tab on each side. (2-13-10 p. 2)
Describe the servo tabs.(2-13-10 p. 2) Deflects in the opposite direction of the elevator proportionally with elevator deflection reducing the control force required.
Describe the spring tabs.(2-13-10 p. 2) Moves in the oppo dir on the elevator help in movement. Spring tab deflect is proport to ctrl column force imposes an aerodynamic force on the elevator. Stays in a neutral posit at low spds. The spring tab deflect at high spds causes the elev to move.
Describe the pitch trim system.(2-13-10 p. 4) An elect-actuated moveable horiz stab. Cmd both auto (autopilot & spd brake) & manually (trim switches). A pitch trim signal is sent to the horiz stab ctrl unit (HSCU) channels, which after processing it cmd the elec motor in the horiz stab actuator.
Describe the HSCU.(2-13-10 p. 4) In the rear electronics compartment. 2 identical & totally independent channels: main & backup. Trimming rate is dependent on airspeed.
Describe the horizontal stabilizer actuator (HSA).(2-13-10 p. 4) An electromechanical actuator driven by 2 DC motors. 1 motor for main channel & 1 for backup channel. Trim motors will not operate simultaneously.
What is the priority of the pitch trim switches?(2-13-10 p. 6) LH switch overrides RH switch (both override autopilot). First switch actuated has priority for backup vs. main.
Can you actuate the main & backup switches simultaneously?(2-13-10 p. 6) No, the 2nd switch commanded becomes inoperative. (Temporarily or for rest of the flight depending on which unit is installed.)
Describe the pitch trim system protections.(2-13-10 pp. 6, 7)Switch protection If only ½ of a switch is commanded for > 7 s continuously, the HSCU ignores that switch.
Describe the pitch trim system protections.(2-13-10 pp. 6, 7)Runaway In case of a runaway for any trim, press & hold the quick disconnect button until that trim is disabled in accordance with the QRH.
Describe the pitch trim system protections.(2-13-10 pp. 6, 7)Inadvertent actuation Any trim switch is limited to 3 s, even if the switch is pressed > 3 s.
Describe the pitch trim system protections.(2-13-10 pp. 6, 7)HSA excessive load High loads on the horizontal stabilizer may stall the HSA. If a pitch trim switch is pressed for a total of 16 s when the HSA is stalled, the HSCU will turn the associated system (main or backup) off & generate an EICAS warning message.
What is the color code for the analog scale on the EICAS pitch trim indication? Green from 4 to 8° nose up, amber outside that range while on the ground. (2-13-10 p. 14)
Describe the aileron control system.(2-13-15 p. 2) The control wheels are linked together by a torque tube. Cables supply mechanical input to 2 separate hydraulic actuators. Each actuator is supplied by both hydraulic systems, but 1 hydraulic system is capable of supplying full power control.
How do you control the ailerons if both hydraulic systems fail? (2-12-15 p. 2) How do you control the ailerons if both hydraulic systems fail? (2-12-15 p. 2)
What happens if you pull the aileron disconnect handle? Can they be reconnected in-flight?(2-12-15 p. 2) Aileron panels are disconnected from one another (right control wheel commands the right aileron) & the amber “AIL DISC” light illuminates. Maintenance action on the ground is required to reconnect.
If the aileron disconnect handle is pulled, which side is the autopilot connected to? Artificial feel unit? Roll trim servo? Left side: Autopilot servo (must not be used).Right side: Roll trim servo & artificial feel unit.(2-13-15 p. 2)
Describe the roll trim system.(2-13-15 p. 4) Roll trim is performed by relocating the aileron’s neutral position through an electromechanical actuator linked to the artificial feel unit. The control wheels and the ailerons move when the roll trim system is actuated.
Will the autopilot disengage when the roll trim switches are activated?(2-13-15 p. 4) No. The aileron neutral position will be relocated & when the autopilot is disengaged, they will move to the repositioned neutral point.
What does each mark on the roll/yaw trim position indicator represent? 50% of the trimming range for the associated side.(2-13-15 p. 9 & 2-13-20 p. 12)
Describe the rudder control system.(2-13-20 p. 2) 2 in-tandem cable-operated, hyd assist rudders. The fwd rudder is driven by the ctrl sys, while the aft rudder is linked to & deflected as a funct of the fwd rudder deflection. Either set of pedals posit the rudder through a pwr ctrl unit (PCU).
Describe the rudder PCU.(2-13-20 p. 2) The PCU is simultaneously powered by both hydraulic systems. Each PCU hydraulic circuit controls the hydraulic power to 1 respective rudder actuator (system 1 & 2). The PCU has an artificial feel device.
How is rudder system 1 and/or system 2 manually or automatically deactivated?(2-13-20 p. 2) Auto: Spd switch: >135 KIAS, rudder sys 1 is auto shut off. Hardover prot: Mech rev for the rudder is sel auto if: Force on any pedal >130#, deflect >5°(±1°)in 1 dir & pedal force in the opp dir, Both engines run >56.4%.
When is the rudder hardover protection disabled?(2-13-20 p. 5) (1) High IAS when the deflection authority is < 5°.(2) During single-engine operations.(3) If a disagreement between FADECs from the same engine occurs.
What is the rudder’s maximum deflection limit?(2-13-20 p. 5) The rudder’s main control primary stops limit deflection to ±15° on the ground or in-flight.
How is the rudder trimmed? (2-13-20 p. 6) By an electromechanical actuator linked to the rudder PCU. The yaw trim switch moves the rudder so the pedals will also move. Since the pedals move, the nose wheel also rotates when on the ground (limited to 5°).
During mechanical reversion, is yaw trim/artificial feel available? (2-13-20 p. 2 rev 27) No. Aerodynamic loads are transmitted directly to the rudder pedals.
What is the different between the mechanical & the electromechanical gust lock?(2-13-25 p. 1) Mechanical gust lock actuates on the torque tube connected to the control wheels where the electromechanical actuates directly on elevator panels.
Describe the flap system.(2-13-30 pp. 1-2) The electrically operated double-slotted flaps are commanded by the flap selector lever which sends a signal to the flap electronic control unit (FECU). The flap power & drive unit (FPDU) drives the 4 flap panels.
Describe the flap power & drive unit (FPDU).(2-13-30 p. 2) The FPDU is a gearbox with 2 elec motors. motor ctrl by the FECU thru 1 indep chan. motors drive all the flap act thru flex shafts.
What if a flap motor fails? If a motor, or its assoc FECU ctrl chan, assoc velocity sensor, or a transmission brake fail, the channel is diseng & its assoc motor act interrupt. The other motor can drive flaps at ½ of their norm spd.
What holds the flaps in place? (2-13-30 p. 2) A transmission brake installed on each outer flap panel.
What are flap velocity sensors? (2-13-30 p. 2 & RGS) Velocity sensors installed at the ends of the flexible shafts detect both flap position & flap asymmetry. (2° of asymmetry deactivates the flaps.)
What is a likely cause of a flap asymmetry?(RGS) A likely cause is a broken flexible shaft.
If the flaps won’t move on the ground what may be the problem?(2-13-30 p. 2) There may be a disagreement between the flap selector lever and the flap position. Lift up and release the flap selector lever to override this protection.
Describe the spoiler system.(2-13-35 p. 1) speed brake & grnd spoiler subsys. Actuat of subsys is totally indep. They are elect cmd & hyd act. spoiler ctrl unit (SCU) permits spoiler panels to open. 2 per wing. The outbd spoilers both spd brk & grnd spoiler. inbd spoil provide only grnd spoiler.
Describe the ground spoiler operation.(2-13-35 p. 2) The SCU automatically opens ground spoilers without pilot input when the following conditions are met:(1) Airplane on the ground.(2) Main landing gear wheels running > 25 kt.(3) Both engine TLAs < 30°, or both N2 < 56%.
Describe the speed brake operation.(2-13-35 p. 2) The SCU allows speed brake operation when the speed brake lever is set to open and:(1) Both engine TLAs < 50°.(2) Flaps set to 0 or 9°.
What happens if speed brakes are open & you set the flaps to ≥ 22° or increase TLA ≥ 50°? Speed brake panels close & “SPBK LVR DISAGREE” EICAS caution message is generated. (2-13-35 p. 4)
Where does engine bleed air come from?(2-14-05 p. 2) From the 9th or 14th stg depend on demand. The 14th stg(HSV) opens auto during low thrust, x-bleed start, & anti-ice ops. If the HSV is open due to low thrust, it will cls & the 9th stg bld (BACV) opens & supp bld air to the sys as thrust incr.
Where is the engine bleed valve (EBV) in relation to the pre-cooler? (2-14-05 p. 2) The EBV is downstream of the pre-cooler.
Where is the bleed air for the engine air inlet anti-icing tapped? (2-14-05 pp. 2-3) Upstream of the HSV so it is always 14th stage air even when the EBV is closed.
What is the external air source for the pre-cooler?(2-14-05 p. 3) Engine fan air is tapped from the engine fan air valve, passes over the pre cooler, & then vented outside.
When does the cross bleed valve (CBV) open automatically?(2-14-05 pp. 2, 4) When in AUTO it opens automatically as required for engine start. It also opens for anti-icing operations on aircraft without pressure regulating & shutoff EBVs.
What does the pneumatic system’s functional logic do when ice is detected? (2-14-05 p. 4) Opens both HSVs, closes the left pack < 24,600 ft, & opens the CBV on some aircraft.
Which side does the APU supply bleed air to?(2-14-05 p. 4) The left pneumatic side.
Can the APU bleed valve (ABV) be open when either engine is supplying bleed air to the left pneumatic side? No. The APU bleed valve (ABV) automatically closes. (2-14-05 p. 4)
How does the EBV operate? The ABV?The CBV? (2-14-05 p. 2 & 4) Electrically controlled by their associated switch & pneumatically actuated.
Which side of the system is the ground pneumatic source connection on? (2-14-05 p. 4) The right side.
Describe the leak detectors.(2-14-05 p. 4) The leak detectors (thermal switches) are installed along all of the pneumatic lines. If a leak is detected, a warning message is generated on the EICAS.
Describe the massive leak detectors.(2-14-05 p. 4) Three massive leak detectors are in the rear electronic bay area to detect intense hot air leakage. If detected, they will automatically close the associated EBV, ABV & the CBV.
Where is the bleed temp on the MFD read? What is the scale? (2-14-05 p. 4, 2-14-10 p. 16) Downstream of the pre cooler.White: < 260°C. Green: 260 to 305°C. Red: > 305°C
When will the EICAS warnings “BLD 1 (2) LEAK” or a“BLD APU LEAK” be generated? (2-14-05 pp. 7, 14) Duct leakage. The temperature in the duct region> 91°C. The switch deactivates at 79°C. The LEAK inscription on the bleed air button also illuminates
When will a “BLD 1 (2) OVTEMP” EICAS warning message be generated? (2-14-05 p. 7) Associated temperature downstream of the pre-cooler is > 305°C.
How does air get from the pneumatic lines into the cabin? (2-14-10 p. 2) Air from the bld sys pass by the press reg & shutoff vlv & then is split into two lines by the dual temp cntl valve. One line pass thru the acm; the other line bypass the acm. The air is mixed together to control the temperature & then enters the cabin.
What happens inside the air cycle machine (ACM)?(2-14-10 p. 2) bld air is cool pri heat exch & then pass over a compres. 2nd heat exch cools the air. The hi press cool air pass thru conden/h2o separ & expan over a turb to prov pwr for the cool fan & comprs. Turb dischr cold. The air is then mixed w/ recic fan/ bleed.
How is the temperature controlled?(2-14-10 p. 2) The environmental control unit (ECU) outlet temperature is controlled through the dual temperature control valve. One valve adds hot bleed air to the turbine discharge air while the other valve restricts the compressor inlet flow.
What happens to the water that is removed by the condenser? (2-14-10 p. 2) It is sprayed on the heat exchanger to improve its efficiency & then it’s vented outside.
How are the ECUs cooled?(2-14-10 p. 2) Cooled in-flight by the ACM fans, using the external ram air. Cooled on the ground by the ACM fans only.
How & when does the ram air get into the cabin?(2-14-10p. 2) The impact air passes through the same ram air inlets that are used to cool the heat exchangers. When the ECU’s air supply is shut off in-flight, the ram air valves are opened automatically & ram air is routed to the distribution lines.
What is the proper technique when switching from auto to manual mode on the temperature knob?(2-14-10 p. 5) Set the knob to 12 o’clock & wait for the system to stabilize (30 s). Switch to manual & smoothly turn the knob to the desired point.
What is gasper air used for?(2-14-10 p. 6) For the individual air outlets, rear electronic compartment, O2 compartment, & relay box ventilation.
When should the recirculation fans be OFF? How many fans are there?(2-14-10 p. 6) Smoke in the cabin, on hot days to reduce the “pull-down” period, & when the cabin is cold soaked to reduce the “pull-up” period. There are 2 fans.
If you do a go-around, will the PACKs automatically trip? (2-14-10 p. 8) The system’s operational logic will determine whether or not there is enough capacity to run the PACKs based on the TAT °C. Just because the engines are at T/O-1 thrust does not necessarily mean the PACKs will trip.
Can you turn the gasper fan off on the ground?(2-14-10 p. 14) No. The gaspers are turned on as soon as the associated DC bus is energized.
When will the EICAS caution message “PACK 1 (2) OVLD” be generated? (2-14-10 p. 11) Associated ECU compressor temperature > 243°C or ECU inlet pressure > 55 psig.
When will the EICAS caution message “PACK 1 (2) OVHT” be generated? (2-14-10 p. 11) Associated ECU outlet temperature > 93°C.
What does a green ON legend mean on the FA’s cabin temp control panel? (2-14-10 p. 18) The cockpit cabin temperature switch is set to allow the FA to control the temperature.
Describe the cabin pressure control system (CPCS).(2-14-15 p. 1) The CPCS ctrl cabin press by reg exhaust rate of cabin air supp by the ECUs. The system compr dgtl & manual ctrl, electropneumatic & pneumatic outflow vlv, air filter, 2 press reg vlv, ejector pump, 2 static port,& a cabin press acquisit module (CPAM).
Describe the positive & negative pressure relief functions. (2-14-15 p. 1) Positive: 8.2 psi.Negative: -0.3 psi.Both outflow valves receive static pressure signals from the static ports for overpressure & negative pressure relief functions, actuating pneumatic devices in case of improper system operation.
When does the CPAM signal the aural warning system to generate a “CABIN” warning? 9900 ft. ±100 ft. (2-14-15 p. 1)
How are the electropneumatic & pneumatic outflow valves operated when in automatic mode?Manual mode?(2-14-15 pp. 2, 7, 9)Automatic Ctrl the digtl ctrl accord the ldg alt, measured cabin press, ADC input, air/grd posit, & tla posit. Info determ the adequate opening of the electropneu outflow vlv. The pneu outflow vlv is slv; both ops simult, maintain the same posit while in auto mode.
How are the electropneumatic & pneumatic outflow valves operated when in automatic mode?Manual mode?(2-14-15 pp. 2, 7, 9)Manual Ctrl by the man ctrl which actuat the pneumatic outflow vlv only. The electropneu outflow vlv clsd. The manual ctrl is rotated until the rate of change is reached. A rapid decompres of the cabin is attain by rotating the manual ctrl to the full UP posit.
Is a landing elevation is not entered, what is the assumed landing altitude? (2-14-15 p. 2 rev 18) 8,000 ft
Describe the automatic pressurization sequence on the ground & the takeoff sequence(2-14-15 p. 4) a/c is on the grd and the TLA in the THRUST SET. The cabin desc at 450 ft/min until a cabin ΔP of .2 psi blw the t/o alt. avd cabin press bumps. The cabin stays at .2 psi blw the t/o alt until the theoret cabin alt > than the cabin alt or until 15 min.
What is theoretical cabin altitude?(2-14-15 p. 2) Function of the airplane operating altitude. Calculated so that the maximum cabin ΔP (7.8 psi) is reached at the lowest possible airplane altitude considering a minimum cabin altitude rate of climb & a maximum airplane rate of climb.
What happens if a takeoff is performed with the pack valves closed? (2-14-15 p. 4) The outflow valves are closed. When the pack valves are opened, the cabin pressurizes to .2 psi below takeoff elevation.
What does the pressurization system do on descent & landing?(2-14-15 pp. 4-6) on desc, the sys calc flt time remain calc the a/c alt, VS, & ldg alt. Uses info to det the cbn press VS on desc. On ldg the cbn is press to 300 ft blw the sel ldg alt. On the grd & TLA at idle, sys depress cabin to avoid bump when packs off or door open.
What happens when the DUMP button is pressed?(2-14-15 p. 8) Effective in auto mode only. Provides rapid cabin decompression up to 14,500 ft.
Where should the manual controller knob be when operating in auto mode? (2-14-15 pp. 2, 9) In the full DN position (otherwise the pneumatic outflow valve tends to open causing problems in auto mode).
Describe the forward electronic bay cooling system.(2-14-20 p. 1) comp 2 NACA (h20 sepa & drain), 2 s/o vlv, 2 recrc fan(pwd by 4 dedic invt mods when a/c is pwr),2 exh fan,2 chk vlv(on each exh duct avd h2o ingst), 4 ctrl therm, & 2 ovrtemp therm. Ctrl therm turn the exh fans on when temp>24°C & deact when temp<19°C.
How is the rear electronic bay cooled?(2-14-20 p. 2) Pressurized: Conditioned air discharged from the cabin passes from the under-floor area to the outflow valves, passing though the compartment.Unpressurized: An outlet blows gasper air toward the compartment.
Describe the baggage ventilation system.(2-14-25 p. 1) Comprises 2 ambient check valves (prevents smoke or fire extinguishing agent from entering into the cabin) & a baggage compartment fan.
For the anti-icing system, what areas are electrically heated? Bleed air? How is ice kept off of the spinner?(2-15-05 p. 1 & RGS) Electric: Windshlds, pitot tubes, AOA sensors, TAT probes, static ports (ADCs & press), & lav drain/potable water service nipples. Bleed air: Leading edges (wing & horiz stab) & engine air inlet lips.Spinner: Off-ctr to cause a slight vib.
How does the bleed air thermal anti-icing system work?(2-15-10 p. 1)Wing & horizontal stabilizer Hot bld air supp by the pneu sys is ducted thru(piccolo) tubes. Piccolo tubes are rte along the sfc so that hot air heat up the assoc area. After heating the sfc, hot air is vent to dedicat exh slots undr wings, trail edge of the vortil, & elev horns.
How is piccolo tube integrity monitored?(2-15-10 p. 1) Measures underpressure, overpressure, & differential pressure.
Which side of the pneumatic system supplies the horizontal stabilizer? The left side.
Will the engines lose some thrust if the anti-icing system is activated after liftoff?(2-15-10 p. 3) No. The FADEC reduces the maximum thrust available to avoid a sudden thrust loss even with the thrust levers set to MAX (when REF A-ICE selected ON).
Can the APU be used for anti-icing operations in trace/light ice? (2-15-10 p. 3) The APU bleed air is not hot enough for anti-icing function and must not be used.
Describe the wing & stabilizer anti-icing valves operational logic.(2-15-10 p. 4) The wing & stab anti-icing vlv receive an elect input to opn when the follow condit occur: The ice detector knob set to 1 or 2, or, In-flt or ground speed > 25 kt & Ice detector OVRD set to ALL. Ice detector AUTO or ENG & any ice detector is activated.
Describe the engine anti-icing valves operational logic.(2-15-10 p. 4) The engine anti-icing vlv receive an elect input to open when the following conditions occur: Ice detector OVRD knob set to ALL or ENG, or Ice detector OVRD knob set to AUTO & any ice detector is activated, or Ice detector knob set to 1 or 2.
Can the anti-icing system be operating normally with an “E1(2) A/ICE FAIL” caution message mean on the EICAS?(2-15-10 pp. 4, 9 rev 26) Yes. The sys logic has a very narrow press rng: At low thrust sett in-flt, it may be blw its low press value. If the thrust sett is incr, the EICAS message clr, & the engine air inlet OPEN inscript remains, the system is ops norm & the flt may continue.
How many temperature sensors are in each windshield?(2-15-10 p. 10) 3 sensors. 1 used for temperature control, 1 for overheat protection, & 1 is a spare for maintenance to use in case of a failure of another sensor.
Describe the operation of the windshield heat.(2-15-10 p. 10) Post-mod: Both defog & anti-ic mode. ON, it maint 26°C unless ic is detect or OVRD to ALL & then it goes to anti-icing mode (43°C). Pre-mod: When temp reach upper limit (45°C), pwr is interrupt. When temp falls blw lwr limit (40°C), pwr is restored.
Describe the functional logic for the sensor heating system. (2-15-10 p. 11) All probes are heated whenever 1 engine run. Except,pitot/static 3 & press static port 2 heating by a separate logic in any flt condit (incl elect emerg). TAT 1 & 2 heated when either engine anti-ic subsys is funct or a/c is in-flt.
Can you takeoff when the TAT indication is replaced by 3 amber dashes on the MFD with the ice detector OVRD knob in ENG?(2-15-10 p. 11) Yes. Since the TAT is heated, it may be out of its normal temperature range on the ground. The AHRS reverts to the basic mode & returns to normal once the TAT cools within its normal range (TAT sensor normal range is -99 to +99°C).
How do you perform the one part ice test. (2-15-10 pp. 4, 14 rev 26; SOP 2.13 p. 33 rev 16) Works by simul ic condit.The Test:Sel engine bleeds. Set Ice Detection Ovrd Knob to ALL. Thrust Levers to 83% N2. Set Ice Detect Test Knob to 1, then 2 (15 s max) MSG: “ICE DET 1(2) FAIL”&“BLD 1(2) LOW TEMP”&“ICE CONDITION” & possibly“CROSS BLD OPEN”.
Describe the 1 part ice test. (2-15-10 pp. 4, 14 rev 26; SOP 2.13 p. 33 rev 16) Works by simulating icing condition on ice detectors 1 & 2. adequate operation is confirmed by the OPEN inscriptions on the anti-icing buttons.
Why is it important to have the PACKs ON when performing the ice test? (RGS) Since the test relies on a minimum system pressure, it should be done with a normal load on the bleed system so that if there is a leak somewhere in the system it may be discovered when the ice test fails.
Describe the ice detection system.(2-15-15 p. 1) 2 ice detect on the nose sect of the aircraft vibrate at a pre-set frequency. ≈ .5 mm of ice activates the ice detection system & causes the bleed air anti-icing system to activate, an SPS AOA set values reduction, & an “ICE CONDIDTION” advisory message.
When activated, how long does the ice signal remain active? (2-15-15 p. 1) 60 s. During this time an internal ice detector heater de-ices the probe & returns to its natural frequency.
Describe the flight crew oxygen system.(2-16-10 p. 1) A conventional high-pressure (1850 psi) gaseous system. The oxygen is stored in a 50 ft³ cylinder located behind & to the right of the FO.
What is the overpressure protection for the crew oxygen system? (2-16-10 p. 1) A safety disc on the right side of the fuselage. Discharge through the safety disc can be visually verified if the green disc is blown out.
What type of oxygen mask is in the cockpit? Quick-donning diluter demand. (2-16-10 p. 1)
Where can the pressure in the oxygen bottle be read? (2-16-10 p. 1) On the MFD or the oxygen service panel on the right side of the front fuselage.
When do you get an “OXYGEN LO PRESS” caution message on the EICAS? (2-16-10 P. 5) < 400 psi in the oxygen cylinder. Oxygen is sufficient for ≈12 min for pilot, copilot & observer.
How can the crew oxygen masks be shut off without replacing them? (2-16-10 p. 6) Close the left door and activate the test/shutoff sliding control.
How does the crew oxygen mask function in normal mode? (2-16-10 pp. 7-11) Diluter-demand. The mixture ratio depends on cabin altitude; > 33,000 ft, it supplies 100% oxygen.
How does the crew oxygen mask function in emergency mode? (2-16-10 pp. 8, 10) Supplies 100% oxygen under positive pressure. Must use this mode when using smoke goggles.
Describe the passenger oxygen system?(2-16-15 p. 1) Oxygen to the passengers & FA comes from chemical generators & continuous flow masks located in the right & left overhead panels, in the lavatory, & FA station.
What activates the passenger oxygen system in AUTO mode? (2-16-15 p. 1) An altimetric switch when the cabin pressure altitude climbs> 14,000 ft.
What happens when the oxygen system is activated?(2-16-15 pp. 1-2) Elec latches open the dispensing units (latch are energ for 6 s). The o2 ON indic light illum & the cabin signs illum auto. An o2 gen is activ when mask in its assoc unit is pulled down. 100% contin flow o2 flows out of each mask. O2 flows≈12 min.
What happens if a dispensing unit door does not open? (2-15-15 p. 2) A door-opening tool can be used to manually open the door.
Where are the portable oxygen cylinders? What are they used for? (2-16-20 p. 1) They are located near each of the FA stations. Used for therapeutic first-aid purposes.
Describe the PBEs. How many PBEs are there in the airplane?(2-16-10 p. 1 & 2-16-25 p. 1) Offers a 15 min minimum oxygen supply for protection against smoke, toxic gasses, & hypoxia. 3 total. 1 in the cockpit behind the CA & 2 in the cabin.
What is the minimum oxygen pressure for dispatch (at 21°C)? Can you go if there is less pressure?(2-16-30 pp. 1-2) Pilot + copilot: 1100 psi.Pilot, copilot, & observer: 1500 psi. Portable oxygen cylinders: 1200 psi.Yes, in accordance with the oxygen pressure correction chart.
What does the air data system (ADS) consist of?(2-17-10 p. 1) 2 air data computers (ADCs), 2 pitot tubes, 1 pitot/static tube, 2 TAT probes, & 4 static ports.
What sensors supply ADC1?(2-17-10 pp. 4-5) Pitot tube 1 & static ports 1 & 4.
What happened if both PFDs are showing an amber ADC2 indication? The CA has the ADC button on their reversion panel.(2-17-10 p. 6)
What causes the current airspeed display to change to amber? (2-17-15 p. 2) The airspeed trend vector has exceeded VMO/MMO.
What is the time frame projection of the Airspeed trend vector? Altitude trend? Airspeed: 10 s.Altitude: 6 s. (2-17-15 pp. 2, 9)
What are the color codes of the low speed awareness indicator?(2-17-15 p. 3) White: 1.23 to 1.13 VS, Amber: 1.13 to VS (shaker may activate),Red: Vs (pusher)
When will an amber ALT be displayed on both PFDs? (2-17-15 p. 8) When there is a difference of ≥ 200 ft between the altitude indications on the PFDs.
At what altitude does the low altitude awareness raster come into view? 550 ft Radio Altitude. (2-17-15 p. 9)
What is the range for the analog VS indication? Digital? What if it’s invalid? (2-17-15 p. 12) Analog: ±3000 ft/min, Digital: ±9999 ft/min,Invalid: a red boxed V over S.
When is the DFDR recording data? What is the record life? (2-17-35 p. 1) Aircraft airborne or red beacon switched ON. Records the last 25 hr.
What does the EMER button on the audio panels do?(2-18-15 p. 1) Connects the CA directly to COM 1 & NAV 1 and the FO to COM 2 & NAV 2. The interphone is also lost. The observer loses radio functions.
What does the side tone knob do?(2-18-15 p. 4) Selects the speakers on (out) or off (in). Feedback is eliminated by rotating it when using the hand mic & speaker.
Describe the CVR. (2-18-25 p. 1) The CVR is in ops any time the ESS DC bus 2 is energ. Records the last 2 hr thru a microphone installed below the magnetic compass. Data older than 2 hr is automatically overwritten by new recording. A 5 G impact cuts off power to preserve recorded data.
What indicates a successful test of the CVR?A successful erasure? When can the CVR be erased?(2-18-25 p. 1) Test: 1 s activ of the status LED on the control panel & a 2 s 800 Hz tone that can be heard if a headphone is plugged into the CVR control panel jack. Erasure: 2 s 400 Hz tone (if headphone plugged in) can be erased on the ground & parking brake set.
When will the PFDs go into declutter mode?(2-18-30 p. 18) > 65° roll, > 30° nose up, or > 20° nose down.
What are the tolerances of the attitude comparator? 2-18-30 p. 22) Roll: 6°Pitch: 5°
What are the tolerances of the heading comparator? (2-18-30 p. 23) ≤ 6° bank: 6° between PFDs, > 6° bank: 12° between PFDs
What Nav information is colored green on the PFD? Amber? Magenta? (2-18-40 pp. 7+) Green: On-side short range nav. Yellow: Both sides same source or cross-side. Magenta: FMS
What are the ground precautions for operating the RADAR?(2-18-45 p. 6) The antenna must be tilted fully upward & free of large metallic objects for 100 ft. Don’t use when refueling or within 100 ft of any airplane that is being refueled. Avoid using when personnel are standing too close to the 270° fwd sector of the a/c.
How can the FSTBY mode of the RADAR be overridden? (2-18-45 p. 8) Pressing the STAB button 4 times in a 3 s period.
What are the default values of the FLC mode of the FGS in descent?(2-19-10 p.8) FL370 to 12,000 ft: 2,000 fpm12,000 to 10,000 ft: 2,000 fpm to 1,000 fpm10,000 ft & below: 1,000 fpm
What are the default values of the FLC mode of the FGS in climb? (2-19-10 p. 9) 240 KIAS to 10,000 ft accelerating to 270 KIAS at 12,000 ft, holding that to .56 Mach.
How is the autopilot normally disengaged? How is the voice message canceled?(2-19-10 p. 15) Pressing the quick disconnect button or the AP button on the FGC. Message self cancels > 2500 ft with a valid radio altimeter signal. Cancelled by pressing the quick disconnect button twice < 2500 ft or without a valid RA signal.
What happens when the quick disconnect button is pressed? (2-19-15 pp. 6-7 rev 29) Disconnects the autopilot, yaw damper, stick pusher, & trim.
What does an amber TKNB on the PFD mean?(2-19-15 p. 11) The turn knob on the autopilot control panel is out of the center detent.
What is the mode transition annunciator?(2-19-15 p. 11) A box highlights a new mode for 5 s & then returns to normal.
How is a roll mistrim displayed?(2-19-15 p. 16) Arrow pointing to the direction the trim must be moved & an “AP AIL MISTRIM” EICAS caution message.
What does a solid cyan diamond on the TCAS mean? A solid red square? An aircraft <6.5 nm and <1,200 ft away, and a resolution advisory, respectively.
What is meant by an amber “DAU 1-2 ENG MISCOMP” message on EICAS? N1, N2 or ITT parameters don’t match
What parameters inhibit the Aural Warning Unit? Takeoff=V1 accelerating until 400’ Radar altLanding= 200’ Radar alt until WOW + 3 sec
What are the color codes of the low speed awareness indicator? White from 1.23 to 1.13Vs, Amber from 1.13Vs (shaker) to Vs, Red at Vs(pusher)
How much crew Oxygen remains when the Low Pressure warning triggers? What pressure triggers that message? 12 minutes400 psi
What is the minimum dispatch pressure of the portable oxygen cylinders? What is their approximate duration? 1200 psi30 minutes
What is the minimum dispatch pressure for the crew O2 for 2 pilots, 3 pilots, at what temperature is this pressure valid? 2= 1100 psi. 3=1500 psi. 21c (70f)
What is the maximum bleed air temperature maintained by the precooler? 299c
What temperature trips a PACK OVRLD? 243c at the ECU compressor
What is the normal temp range of bleed air downstream of the precooler? 260c to 304c (white markings on gauge)
What is the normal bleed pressure? 31.5 psi
What is the normal pneumatic pressure and what pressure is considered a pack overload? 31.5 psi normal, 55 psi overload
What pressure trips a PACK OVRLD? 55 psi
What temperature triggers a Bleed Leak Warning? 91c. The message will extinguish cooling through 79c
What temperature trips a PACK OVHT? 93c at the ECU outlet
Where is the air source for the precooler? Air is tapped from the engine fan stage.
How many capacitance probes per fuel tank? Six
What is the maximum pressure for single-point fueling? Approximate flow? 50 psi125 gallons per minute
What is the minimum fuel temperature at the FCOC discharge for operating without fuel additives, and are additives readily available? +4c and NO.
Where is the oil cooler located? In the nacelle fan (or bypass) duct.
What is meant if engine takeoff data is replaced by amber dashes? Data has been rejected by the FADECs
Which FADEC is the CVG torque motor connected to? Both, it is a dual-coil motor.
Where do the FADECs get their electrical power? What source has priority? A FADEC = On-side Essential DC bus,B FADEC = Cross-side Essential DC bus, From the PMA above 10% N2.
How much oil does each engine hold? What is the minimum for dispatch? 13 quarts and 6 quarts, respectively.
The FADECs will command T/O-1 power under what conditions. 1) Default. 2) T/O button pushed. 3) Thrust lever beyond detent. 4) Gear down & locked below 15,000’ 5) ATTCS triggered. 6) ATTCS should be armed but isn’t. 7) Engines don’t agree on thrust mode.
What is the minimum GPU amperage? 1600 amps
An EICAS message indicating generator bearing failure means what? The main bearing in the generator has failed, and the unit can continue to operate 20 hrs on the backup bearing.
What are the overload amperage limits of the engine-driven generators? 600 amps for 5 minutes, 800 amps for 10 seconds.
What is the minimum battery voltage for APU starting? 23.5 volts
What items are powered by the No.1 hot battery bus? 1) ELT. 2) Refueling Panel. 3) #1 Fuel SOV. 4) #1 Hyd SOV. 5) Squib 1A 6) Squib 2A
Which bus charges the emergency lights? Essential DC Bus 2
Can the FSTBY mode of the radar be over-ridden? YES, by pushing the STAB button four times in a three second period.
What does an amber “CAS MSG” on the EICAS mean? What should the crews’ action be? There is a disagreement in the messages being sent by IC600-1 and IC600-2. Crew should select EICAS on both MFDs, and compare messages.
What indicates a successful test of the CVR? A successful erasure? A two-second 800 Hz toneA three-second 400 Hz tone
What inputs start the DFDR? Aircraft airborne or Rotating Beacon ON
At what altitude does the low altitude awareness raster come into view? 550 ft Radar Altitude
Which bleed air system does the APU normally pressurize? The LH side.
Which fuel tank does the APU normally draw fuel from? The RH tank.
What are bonding straps for? To prevent metal parts from fusing together durring a lightning strike.
Why is there an accuulator on hydrolic system 1 on aircraft with out airstairs? Prevents pressure bumps(surges) in the system and stores pressue for the priority valve to the flight contolls incase the engine driven pump fails.
How many chip detecors are in the oil system? 4 from the scavenger screens (fan, fwd, ctr, and aft sumps)
If in an electrical emergency all of the electrical system is running. What happened? The EDL Logic did not isolate ess busses, QRH: press ess pwr button.
If the APU is in ground safe, is there any fire protection? The APU will shut down causing the a/c to go dark. The fire bottle for the APU is off of DC bus. Batteries would have to be turned on to activate the fire extinguisher.
Created by: RBadley on 2009-01-17

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