Save
Busy. Please wait.
Log in with Clever
or

show password
Forgot Password?

Don't have an account?  Sign up 
Sign up using Clever
or

Username is available taken
show password


Make sure to remember your password. If you forget it there is no way for StudyStack to send you a reset link. You would need to create a new account.
Your email address is only used to allow you to reset your password. See our Privacy Policy and Terms of Service.


Already a StudyStack user? Log In

Reset Password
Enter the associated with your account, and we'll email you a link to reset your password.
focusNode
Didn't know it?
click below
 
Knew it?
click below
Don't Know
Remaining cards (0)
Know
0:00
Embed Code - If you would like this activity on your web page, copy the script below and paste it into your web page.

  Normal Size     Small Size show me how

NMT Review Test 1

Steve's Review Exam 1 Part 2

QuestionAnswer
Based on the day's clinic schedule shown here: Patient A - Thyroid uptake and image Patient B - Therapy for hyperthyroidism Patient C - Cisternogram. The tech should prepare or order what radio-parmaceuticals? 131I-sodium iodide is the agent used for treatment of hyperthyroidism. 123I-sodium iodide is the agent of choice for thyroid uptake and may be used for imaging as well. 111In-pentetate is administered for cisternography.
If an MAA kit must be reconstituded with 3.5mL of 99mTc-pertechnetate, what are the consequences if only 2.0mL are added to the kit? Patients will receive more MAA particles per milliliter of 99mTc-MAA. The volume added to an MAA kit governs the number of particles in each milliliter of radiopharmaceutical and, therefore, the number of particles the patient will receive.
Reconstituted "cold" pyrophosphate is administered to the patient in which RBC labeling method: A)in vitro method B)in vivo method C)modified in vivo method D)both in vivo and modified in vivo method D)in both the in vivo and modified in vivo techniques, reconstituted "cold" pyrophosphate, containing stannous ions that permit 99mTc-pertechnetate to permeate red cell membranes, is administered intravenously to the patient.
Which of the following radiopharmaceutical kit formulations is light sensitive: A)sestambi B)oxidronate C)mertiatide D)exametazime C)mertiatide. The contents in the mertiatide reaction vial are light sensitive and must be protected from light.
When performing radiochromatography on a radiopharmaceutical sample, the solvent front is located 8.5cm from the origin and the radio-chemical impurity is at the origin. What is the R(f) value of the radio-chemical impurity: A)0 B)0.85 C)1.0 D)8.5 A)0. The R(f) value is the distance traveled by a given radio-chemical component compared with the solvent front.
According to the USP, to be administered to patients, most 99mTc-lableed radiopharmaceuticals should have a radio-chemical purity of at least what percentage: A)98% B)95% C)90% D)88% C)90%. According to the USP, most 99mTc-labeled radiopharmaceuticals should have a radio-chemical purity of at least 90%.
A technologist must administer 8mCi 99mTc-mebrofenin to a patient at 1100. On the basis of the vial label information given what volume should be given. Calibration: 0700 Total act: 100mCi Total vol: 8.5mL Concentration: 11.8mCi/mL Expiration: 1500 1.1mL
A technologist must administer 37MBq 201Tl- thallous chloride at 1000 on Feb 16. What volume should be administered to the patient based on the following information: Calibration: Feb 14 @ 1200 Total act: 222MBq Total vol: 4mL Concentration: 55.5MBq/mL 1.0mL
A technologist needs 4mCi 201Tl thallous chloride at 0800 on June 29. What volume is required to obtain the necessary activity on June 29 given the following information: Total act: 10.0 Total vol: 5.5mL Assay: 1200, July 1. 1.35mL
Which radiopharmaceutical is used to label RBC's with 99mTc: A)albumin B)exametazime C)pertechnetate D)pyrophosphate C)pertechnetate. Three methods of labeling RBC's with 99mTc all use pertechnetate. Pertechnetate enters the RBC and binds to hemoglobin.
Which of the following radiopharmaceuticals is used to label white blood cells with 99mTc: A)bicisate B)exametazime C)pertechnetate D)sestamibi B)exametazime. Pertechnetate is used to label RBC. Bicisate is used to demonstrate regional brain perfusion. Sestamibi is used for myocardial imaging as well as other applications.
When 99mTc-exametazime is used to label white blood cells, which of the following reagents is omitted from its preparation: A)99mTc-pertechnetate B)0.9% sodium chloride C)methylene blue stabilizer D)ACD solution C)methylene blue stabilizer. When 99mTc-exametazime is used to label white blood cells, methylene blue stabilized is omitted from its preparation.
4mCi of 201Tl-thallous chloride is the prescribed unit dosage. According to the NRC, which of the following measurements verifies that a dosage within acceptable limits has been dispensed into the syringe: A)3.5mCi B)4.0mCi C)4.3mCi D)4.5mCi All the measurements are within acceptable limits. The NRC states that the administered dosage must fall within the prescribed dosage range or may not differ from the prescribed dosage by more than 20%.
In labeling RBC's with radiochromium, the order of components to be added to the vial containing ACD solution is: A)patient blood, radiochromium, ascorbic acid B)Radiochromium, patient blood, ascorbic acid C)radiochromium, ascorbic acid, patient blood A)patient blood, radiochromium, ascorbic acid. Radiochromium should not be added to the ACD solution before the patient's blood because ACD may change the valence of the radiochromium before labeling can take place. Ascorbic acid is added at the end.
If a unit dosage of 99mTc-MAA contains 148MBq and 325,000 particles in 0.75mL at 1000, approximately how many particles will be contained in 148MBq at 1600? 650,000 particles.
If a unit dosage of radioactivity contains 4.5mCi in 1.2mL, how many mL must be removed so that 3.5mCi remain in the syringe: A)0.93mL B)0.78mL C)0.42mL D)0.27mL D)0.27mL
If a radiopharmaceutical kit must be reconstituded with 30mCi contained in 5mL and the eluate has an activity of 350mCi in 7mL, how many mL of preservative-free saline must be added: A)0.1mL B)0.6mL C)4.4mL D)4.9mL C)4.4mL
What is the minimal centrifugation time needed if a protocol specifies 5000 g for 5 min, but the maximum relative centrifugal force that can be obtained is 2500 g? 10 min T(1)G(1) = T(2)G(2); T(2) = T(1)G(1) / G(2); (5min)(5000g) / 2500g =10min
According to the NRC, imaging rooms should be posted with which of the following signs: A)no posting is required B)"Caution: Radioactive Materials" C)"Caution: Radiation Area D)"Caution: High Radiation Area B)"Caution: Radioactive Materials".
Which of the following exposure rates indicate that a package containing radioactive material must be labeled with a category 111 DOT label: A)56mR/hr @ 1m B)22mR/hr @ 1m C)1.5mR/hr @ 1m D)0.5mR/hr @ 1m A)56mR/hr @ 1m. Category 1 (white) <0.5mR/hr Category 11 (yellow) <50mR/hr Category 111 (yellow) <200mR/hr
If a point source produces an exposure rate of 30mR/hr @ 15cm, what is the exposure rate at 40cm from the source: A)0.2mR/hr B)4.2mR/hr C)11.2mR/hr D)22mR/hr B)4.2mR/hr. Use the inverse square law
If the half-value layer (HVL) for 131I in lead is 0.3cm, what is the minimum thickness of lead that is required to reduce the exposure rate of a 131I source from 12mR/hr to less than 2mR/hr: A)0.3cm B)0.6cm C)0.9cm D)1.2cm C)0.9cm. Each half-value layer (HVL) will decrease the activity to one-half of the previous activity.
A patient receives a unit dosage of 89Sr-chloride intended for another patient. According to the NRC, does this situation describe a medical event requiring notification to the NRC, or a medical event that needs to be reported only the the NM supervisor. The situation describes a medical event requiring notification of the NRC.
According to the NRC regulations, the annual occupational dose limit to the eye is: A)500mSv B)150mSv C)50mSv D)5mSv B)150mSv. According to the NRC, the annual occupational dose limit to the eye is 15rem or 150mSv.
A vial of 133Xe has been decayed in storage for 2 months. When the vial is monitored with a survey meter, the reading is twice the background level. What should the technologist do next? According to the NRC regulations, decay in storage of radioactive materials requires that the materials remain in storage until the radioactivity is indistinguishable from background radiation using a survey meter on the most sensitive scale.
According to the NRC, wipe test of areas where radiopharmaceuticals are prepared or administered must be performed: A)on a reasonable schedule B)every day on which radiopharmaceuticals are used C)weekly D)only if contamination occurs A)on a reasonable schedule. As of October 2002, the NRC no longer requires daily surveys and weekly wipe tests. Instead, it allows facilities to establish a survey and wipe test schedule.
What is the measured exposure rate of a GM meter if the dial is set to x0.1 and the meter is showing 1.7mR/hr? 0.17mR/hr
When opening packages containing radioactive material, which of the steps should be performed first: A)visually inspect the package for damage B)put on disposable gloves C)verify the package contents to the packing slip D)wipe test the package B)put on disposable gloves. Because it has not been determined that the package is free of contamination, gloves should be put on before he package or its contents are handled.
During cleanup of a radioactive spill, decontamination of the area must continue until: A)no more contamination can be removed B)the exposure rate cannot be distinguished from background C)no one would receive the maximum allowable TEDE if in area A)no more contamination can be removed. If residual radioactivity is present after thorough decontamination, the area should be covered as a reminder for personnel to limit their time in that area.
Personnel must wear a radiation monitoring device during work hours if they are: A)exposed to radiation at any time during work hours B)exposed to radiation above background levels C)likely to exceed 10% of the annual max allowable occupational exposure C)likely to exceed 10% of annual max allowable occupational exposure. The NRC requires monitoring of occupationally exposed individuals if they are likely to exceed 10% of the annual allowable limit for external exposure or internal uptake.
A patient can be released after receiving a therapeutic radiopharmaceutical if no other individual is likely to receive an exposure dose, from being exposed to the patient, exceeding how many rems: A)0.1 B)0.2 C)0.5 D)5.0 C)0.5rems
If a source of radioactive contamination produces an exposure rate of 3mR/hr, how long will it take for the exposure rate to drop to a background exposure rate of 0.05mR/hr: A)4 half-lives B)5 half-lives C)6 half-lives D)7 half-lives C)6 half-lives. For each half-life that passes, the activity decreased to half of the previous activity.
According to the NRC, records of surveys must be retained for how many years: A)1 B)3 C)5 D)as long as the facility's license is in effect B)3 years. According to the NRC, the results of all surveys must be retained for 3 years.
Which of the following materials is recommended for shielding syringes containing positron-emitting radionuclides: A)lead B)plastic-lined lead C)tungsten D)steel C)tungsten. Tungsten is recommended because it will absorb more radiation than the same thickness of lead.
If a NMT needs a diagnostic X-ray, how should this exposure be included in the occupational exposure record: A)the NMT should wear their dosimeter during the X-ray B)RSO will supply a separate dosimeter C)X-ray is not included in the occupational record C) Only radiation exposure directly related to the practice of nuclear medicine as an occupation is recorded in the individual's dosimetry record. Personal diagnostic and therapeutic exposures are not included.
If the results of a dose calibrator linearity test demonstrate that the measured values exceed the values by 12-15%, the technologist should: A)replace the instrument B)have the instrument repaired C)use a correction factor to determine true activities C)use a correction factor to determine true activities. The NRC requires dose calibrators be tested for proper function according to nationally recognized standards. The standard of practice dictates that the measured activity should be within 10%.
A NMT measures a 57Co standard in a dose calibrator on these settings: 57Co, 99mTc, 123I, 133Xe, and 201Tl, and then calculates the % difference between the calculated and measured activities. The NMT is assessing: A)accuracy B)constancy C)linearity B)constancy. Using a long-lived source, a reading is obtained for each of the commonly used preset buttons on the dose calibrator. Although this does not provide an accurate reading, it shows whether the instrument is performing with precision.
A 137Cs reference standard is counted daily with a scintillation spectrometer, using the same gain, window, and high voltage setting. If the net counts per minute changes dramatically from one day to the next, what should the NMT do? Recalibrate the operating voltage. Voltage may drift slightly from one day to the next, causing the gamma ray spectrum to shift to the right or left, out of the preset window.
According to the standards of practice, how often should dose calibrator linearity testing be performed: A)annually B)quarterly C)monthly D)daily B)quarterly. Dose calibrator linearity should be performed quarterly.
To repair non-uniformity on an intrinsic uniformity image the service engineer will need to: A)replace the crystal B)replace a photomultiplier tube C)repair the collimator B)replace a photomultiplier tube. On an intrinsic flood, a collimator is not used. Damage to a crystal would appear irregular.
Which of the following sources is the most appropriate for assessing dose calibrator constancy: A)99mTc B)137Cs C)125I D)131I B)137Cs. The reference source used for monitoring dose calibrator constancy must be long-lived to permit comparison of measured and predicted activities over an extended period.
Which statement about the effect of the filter-cutoff frequency is TRUE: A)the lower the cutoff frequency, the smoother the image B)the lower the cutoff frequency, the noisier the image B) The cutoff frequency of a filter determines which frequencies are passed unchanged and which are altered or suppressed. Lowering the cutoff frequency eliminates more of the high-frequency signal that gives the image its sharp detail.
Temporal resolution is related to which of the following acquisition parameters: A)% energy window B)matrix size C)framing rate D)collimator C)framing rate. Temporal resolution is the ability to demonstrate changes in radiopharmaceutical distribution over time. Therefore, this is a factor in dynamic and multiple-gated acquisitions, both of which acquire data in sequential frames.
Temporal smoothing could be appropriately applied in which of the following studies: A)whole-body bone B)gated-equilibrium cardiac function C)SPECT of liver D)thyroid B)gated-equilibrium cardiac function study. Temporal smoothing is used in dynamic studies to produce a gradual variation in counts and smoother motion from one frame to the next. It is not useful in static imaging.
If an image is acquired into a 128 x 128 matrix on a scintillation camera with a 350-mm-diameter field of view, what are the dimensions of each pixel? 2.73 x 2.73mm. Pixel size is determined by the matrix dimensions and the size of the field of view. Pixel size(mm) = diameter of FOV(mm)/number of pixels.
Which of the following instruments should be used to determine whether all removable contamination has been eliminated: A)GM counter B)cutie pie C)well counter D)uptake probe C)well counter. When GM counter readings no longer decrease as the cleanup progresses, a wipe test, which is measured in a well counter, is performed.
Which of the following matrix sizes and acquisition modes would be most appropriate for a blood flow study of the feet: A)64x64 byte B)64x64 word C)256x256 byte D)256x256 word A)64x64 byte. A blood-flow study of the feet would be acquired at a framing rate of 2-4 sec/frame, so few counts would be obtained in each frame. Therefore, a small matrix must be used:64x64.
A daily uniformity flood for a scintillation camera should contain a minimum of how many counts: A)1-2 million B)3-5 million C)6-10 million D)20-30 million B)3-5 million. For a small-FOV-camera, 3 million counts should be acquired; for a large-FOV-camera, 5 million counts should be obtained.
As a pinhole collimator is moved farther away from the thyroid, how will it affect the image: A)the gland will appear larger B)the gland will appear smaller C)no change in size B)the gland will appear smaller. As a pinhole collimator is moved from a source, the image of the source becomes smaller. As it is moved closer, the image becomes larger.
During geometric variation testing of a dose calibrator, activity in a 1mL syringe measures 253uCi when the expected reading is 212uCi. Which of the correction factors should be applied to the reading: A)0.84 B)1.19 C)4.1 D)23.3 A)0.84. When the geometric variation varies from the expected by more than 10%, a correction factor must be calculated and applied. Correction factor = expected activity/actual activity.
Created by: fhantom88
Popular Radiology sets

 

 



Voices

Use these flashcards to help memorize information. Look at the large card and try to recall what is on the other side. Then click the card to flip it. If you knew the answer, click the green Know box. Otherwise, click the red Don't know box.

When you've placed seven or more cards in the Don't know box, click "retry" to try those cards again.

If you've accidentally put the card in the wrong box, just click on the card to take it out of the box.

You can also use your keyboard to move the cards as follows:

If you are logged in to your account, this website will remember which cards you know and don't know so that they are in the same box the next time you log in.

When you need a break, try one of the other activities listed below the flashcards like Matching, Snowman, or Hungry Bug. Although it may feel like you're playing a game, your brain is still making more connections with the information to help you out.

To see how well you know the information, try the Quiz or Test activity.

Pass complete!
"Know" box contains:
Time elapsed:
Retries:
restart all cards